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100+ Free Examen Integrado — Medicina Practice Questions

Prepare for the Argentina Medical Residencies Integrated Examination (Examen Integrado de Residencias de la Salud — Medicina) exam with instant access — no signup required.

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: Examen Integrado — Medicina Exam

100

Total Questions

MSAL Examen Integrado — temario oficial por disciplina

4h

Time Limit

MSAL Examen Integrado — cronograma y modalidad del examen

100 pts

Maximum Exam Score

Resolución MSAL 555/2026 (1 pt/correct answer)

5 pts

National Graduate Bonus

Resolución MSAL 555/2026 Article 4

28%

Internal Medicine Weight

MSAL Examen Integrado — temario oficial por disciplina

22%

Pediatrics Weight

MSAL Examen Integrado — temario oficial por disciplina

18%

Surgery Weight

MSAL Examen Integrado — temario oficial por disciplina

18%

Obstetrics & Gynecology Weight

MSAL Examen Integrado — temario oficial por disciplina

14%

Public Health & Bioethics Weight

MSAL Examen Integrado — temario oficial por disciplina

$0 ARS

Exam Fee

Ministerio de Salud de la Nación SISA

Argentina's Examen Integrado de Residencias — Medicina is the single high-stakes entrance exam for basic medical residency training positions across the Argentine public and private healthcare systems. Administered by CAEI/MSAL on digital tablets, it comprises 100 clinical MCQs across 5 core domains with a 4-hour time limit. Under Resolución 555/2026, ranking combines the exam score (out of 100), medical school GPA (promedio), and a 5-point weighting bonus for graduates of Argentine universities.

Sample Examen Integrado — Medicina Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Examen Integrado — Medicina exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old male arrives at a rural community hospital in Buenos Aires Province with severe retrosternal crushing chest pain of 2 hours duration, diaphoresis, and nausea. An immediate 12-lead ECG reveals 3 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1 through V4. The local center lacks a cardiac catheterization laboratory, and the expected transfer time to the nearest percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) center is 150 minutes. The patient has no contraindications to anticoagulation or thrombolysis. What is the MOST appropriate next reperfusion strategy?
A.Immediate intravenous fibrinolytic therapy (e.g., tenecteplase or alteplase) administered within 30 minutes of arrival
B.Immediate emergent transfer for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) regardless of transfer delay
C.Administration of high-dose intravenous nitroglycerin infusion with repeat ECG in 60 minutes
D.Conservative medical management with aspirin, clopidogrel, and subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin without reperfusion
Explanation: According to the Argentine Society of Cardiology (SAC) and international STEMI guidelines, when primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of first medical contact, immediate intravenous fibrinolytic therapy should be administered within 30 minutes (door-to-needle time) provided there are no contraindications. Following successful fibrinolysis, the patient should be transferred for a pharmacoinvasive approach with routine coronary angiography within 2 to 24 hours.
2A 64-year-old male with ischemic cardiomyopathy and heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (LVEF 30%, NYHA Functional Class II) presents for follow-up. He is currently asymptomatic on enalapril 10 mg twice daily and bisoprolol 10 mg daily. His blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg, heart rate is 64 bpm, serum potassium is 4.3 mEq/L, and estimated GFR is 68 mL/min/1.73 m2. To reduce cardiovascular mortality and heart failure hospitalizations according to guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT), which medication should be added next?
A.A mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (e.g., Spironolactone 25 mg daily) and an SGLT2 inhibitor (e.g., Empagliflozin 10 mg daily)
B.Digoxin 0.25 mg daily to enhance left ventricular inotropic contractility
C.Amlodipine 10 mg daily for further afterload reduction and blood pressure control
D.Furosemide 40 mg daily as routine disease-modifying therapy despite absence of congestion
Explanation: Guideline-directed medical therapy for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is based on four foundational pillars proven to reduce mortality: an ARNI/ACEi/ARB, an evidence-based beta-blocker, a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist (MRA, such as spironolactone), and an SGLT2 inhibitor (dapagliflozin or empagliflozin). With a normal potassium level and preserved renal function, adding spironolactone and an SGLT2 inhibitor provides substantial additive survival benefits.
3A 72-year-old female with a history of essential hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the outpatient clinic for routine evaluation. A 12-lead ECG reveals irregularly irregular narrow-complex tachycardia without distinct P waves at a rate of 98 bpm, confirming newly diagnosed non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Echocardiogram shows mild left atrial enlargement with preserved LVEF (55%). She has no history of stroke, TIA, or bleeding. What is her CHA2DS2-VASc score, and what is the recommended stroke prevention strategy?
A.CHA2DS2-VASc score = 4; initiate oral anticoagulation with a Direct Oral Anticoagulant (DOAC, e.g., Apixaban or Rivaroxaban) or Warfarin
B.CHA2DS2-VASc score = 2; initiate dual antiplatelet therapy with Aspirin 100 mg and Clopidogrel 75 mg daily
C.CHA2DS2-VASc score = 1; initiate Aspirin 100 mg monotherapy daily
D.CHA2DS2-VASc score = 3; no anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy is indicated unless she develops paroxysmal symptoms
Explanation: Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is calculated as: Age 72 (65-74 years = 1 point), Female sex (1 point), Hypertension (1 point), and Diabetes mellitus (1 point), yielding a total score of 4. In women with non-valvular atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASc score >= 3 (or >= 2 in men), oral anticoagulation with a DOAC (preferred) or a Vitamin K antagonist (target INR 2.0-3.0) is strongly indicated to reduce thromboembolic stroke risk.
4A 34-year-old woman is evaluated for treatment-resistant hypertension. Despite adherence to a three-drug regimen including amlodipine 10 mg, valsartan 160 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily, her office blood pressure remains 168/104 mmHg. Routine laboratory testing reveals serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L, and serum bicarbonate 31 mEq/L. She is not taking licorice or laxatives. What is the MOST appropriate initial screening test for the suspected secondary etiology?
A.Morning plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR)
B.24-hour urinary free cortisol excretion
C.Renal duplex ultrasonography for renal artery stenosis
D.24-hour urinary fractionated metanephrines and normetanephrines
Explanation: The clinical presentation of resistant hypertension in a young adult associated with spontaneous or diuretic-induced hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis strongly suggests primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome). The recommended initial screening test is the morning plasma aldosterone concentration to plasma renin activity ratio (aldosterone-to-renin ratio, ARR). An elevated ARR (> 20-30 with elevated aldosterone) warrants confirmatory suppression testing.
5A 68-year-old male is brought to the emergency department in Rosario with a 3-day history of high fever, chills, pleuritic right-sided chest pain, and rust-colored sputum. On examination, he is disoriented to time and place. Vital signs: BP 94/58 mmHg, HR 108 bpm, RR 32 breaths/min, temperature 38.9 C, and SpO2 90% on room air. Chest examination reveals right lower lobe bronchial breath sounds and dullness to percussion. Serum urea is 56 mg/dL (BUN 26 mg/dL). Chest radiograph confirms right lower lobe consolidation. Based on the CURB-65 score and Argentine consensus guidelines for Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP), what is the appropriate management setting and initial empiric antibiotic regimen?
A.Hospital admission with intensive-care assessment given the high severity score; intravenous Ampicillin/Sulbactam plus Clarithromycin (or Ceftriaxone plus Azithromycin)
B.Outpatient management; oral Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 5 days
C.Outpatient management; oral Ciprofloxacin 500 mg every 12 hours for 7 days
D.Immediate endotracheal intubation, ICU admission, and monotherapy with intravenous Vancomycin
Explanation: This patient meets all five CURB-65 criteria, giving a score of 5: Confusion (disoriented to time and place), Urea 56 mg/dL (above the 42 mg/dL threshold), Respiratory rate 32/min (>= 30), Blood pressure 94/58 mmHg (diastolic <= 60 mmHg), and Age 68 (>= 65). A CURB-65 score of 3-5 defines severe community-acquired pneumonia with high 30-day mortality, so the patient must be admitted and formally assessed for intensive or intermediate care rather than routed to a general ward by default. Per Argentine consensus guidelines for CAP (Sociedad Argentina de Infectología / SADI and AAMR), the empiric regimen is an intravenous beta-lactam (ampicillin/sulbactam or ceftriaxone) combined with a macrolide (clarithromycin or azithromycin), or a respiratory fluoroquinolone such as levofloxacin, to cover Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical pathogens.
6A 67-year-old male with a 40 pack-year smoking history and severe Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD, GOLD Stage 3) presents with worsening dyspnea, increased sputum volume, and purulent sputum production over the past 48 hours (Anthonisen Type 1 exacerbation). Physical examination shows tachypnea (RR 26/min), diffuse expiratory wheezing, and prolonged expiration. Arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air reveals: pH 7.31, PaCO2 54 mmHg, PaO2 56 mmHg, and HCO3 27 mEq/L. Which combination of interventions is the standard of care for this acute exacerbation?
A.Inhaled short-acting bronchodilators (Salbutamol + Ipratropium), oral systemic corticosteroid (Prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days), empiric oral antibiotic (e.g., Amoxicillin/Clavulanate), and controlled oxygen therapy targeting SpO2 88-92%
B.High-flow 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask targeting SpO2 99%, inhaled fluticasone monotherapy, and oral theophylline
C.Immediate endotracheal intubation with invasive mechanical ventilation, high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone for 21 days, and no antibiotics
D.Intravenous aminophylline infusion, long-acting beta-agonists alone, and immediate discharge home with home oxygen
Explanation: Management of a severe COPD exacerbation (Anthonisen Type 1 with all 3 cardinal symptoms: worsening dyspnea, sputum volume, and purulence) involves: (1) inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonists (salbutamol) and anticholinergics (ipratropium bromide), (2) a short course of oral systemic corticosteroids (prednisone 40 mg daily for 5 days per GOLD guidelines), (3) empiric antibiotics covering Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis (e.g., amoxicillin/clavulanate), and (4) controlled oxygen therapy targeting SpO2 88-92% to avoid worsening hypercapnic respiratory drive suppression.
7A 23-year-old female with a history of persistent asthma presents to the emergency room with acute shortness of breath and chest tightness after a viral upper respiratory infection. She has used her albuterol inhaler 6 times in the last 2 hours without significant relief. On examination, she is sitting upright, speaking in short phrases, RR 28/min, HR 112 bpm, SpO2 93% on ambient air, with diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezing. Peak expiratory flow (PEF) is 55% of predicted. According to international and Argentine asthma guidelines (GINA), what is the MOST appropriate initial pharmacologic therapy?
A.Inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist (Salbutamol) via spacer or nebulizer combined with Ipratropium bromide, plus early oral systemic corticosteroids (Prednisone 40-50 mg)
B.Subcutaneous epinephrine injection, intravenous aminophylline, and broad-spectrum intravenous cephalosporins
C.Inhaled long-acting beta-agonist (Salmeterol) monotherapy with immediate sedation
D.Immediate endotracheal intubation and intravenous magnesium sulfate bolus monotherapy
Explanation: Initial management of a moderate-to-severe acute asthma exacerbation (PEF 50-75%, tachypnea, speech in phrases) requires rapid reversal of airflow obstruction and reduction of airway inflammation: (1) inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist (salbutamol 4-10 puffs every 20 minutes for the first hour) combined with inhaled ipratropium bromide, (2) early administration of oral systemic corticosteroids (prednisone 40-50 mg/day for 5-7 days), and (3) supplemental oxygen targeting SpO2 93-95%.
8A 54-year-old male undergoes diagnostic thoracentesis for a moderate right-sided pleural effusion. Simultaneous pleural fluid and serum laboratory analyses yield the following results: - Pleural fluid protein: 4.2 g/dL (Serum total protein: 6.5 g/dL; ratio = 0.65) - Pleural fluid LDH: 280 IU/L (Serum LDH: 320 IU/L; ratio = 0.88; upper limit of normal for serum LDH is 200 IU/L) - Pleural fluid glucose: 58 mg/dL According to Light's criteria, how is this pleural fluid categorized, and which etiology is MOST consistent with these findings?
A.Exudative effusion; consistent with Parapneumonic effusion, Tuberculosis, or Malignancy
B.Transudative effusion; consistent with Congestive Heart Failure
C.Transudative effusion; consistent with Hepatic Hydrothorax (Cirrhosis)
D.Transudative effusion; consistent with Nephrotic Syndrome
Explanation: According to Light's criteria, a pleural effusion is classified as an EXUDATE if at least ONE of the following three criteria is met: (1) Pleural fluid protein / Serum protein ratio > 0.5 (here 0.65), (2) Pleural fluid LDH / Serum LDH ratio > 0.6 (here 0.88), or (3) Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 of the upper limit of normal serum LDH (here 280 > 133). Because it is an exudate, it reflects increased capillary permeability or impaired lymphatic clearance, typical of pneumonia (parapneumonic), tuberculosis, malignancy, or pulmonary embolism.
9A 56-year-old male with decompensated alcoholic cirrhosis and large ascites is admitted to the hospital with low-grade fever (37.9 C), diffuse mild abdominal tenderness, and subtle worsening of confusion (Grade 1 hepatic encephalopathy). A diagnostic paracentesis is performed immediately. Peritoneal fluid analysis reveals a cloudy appearance with a total leukocyte count of 850/mm3 and 72% polymorphonuclear cells (absolute PMN count = 612/mm3). Which immediate therapeutic management plan is standard of care?
A.Intravenous Ceftriaxone (2 g/day) plus Intravenous Albumin (1.5 g/kg on Day 1 and 1.0 g/kg on Day 3)
B.Oral Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily with therapeutic serial paracentesis without albumin
C.Intravenous Vancomycin and Piperacillin/Tazobactam with immediate surgical exploratory laparotomy
D.High-dose oral Spironolactone and Furosemide with fluid restriction and discharge home
Explanation: Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis (SBP) is diagnosed by an ascitic fluid absolute polymorphonuclear (PMN) count >= 250 cells/mm3 in the absence of an intra-abdominal surgically treatable source. First-line empiric treatment is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin (e.g., Ceftriaxone 2 g/day). Administration of intravenous albumin (1.5 g/kg at diagnosis and 1.0 g/kg on Day 3) significantly reduces the incidence of hepatorenal syndrome and improves survival.
10A 52-year-old male with known hepatitis C-related cirrhosis presents to the shock trauma bay after vomiting 500 mL of bright red blood. On examination: BP 88/54 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, cold clammy extremities, and pallor. Resuscitation with packed red blood cells (targeting hemoglobin 7-8 g/dL) and isotonic crystalloids is initiated. Along with hemodynamic stabilization, what are the THREE essential pharmacological and endoscopic interventions required within the first 12 hours?
A.Intravenous vasoactive drug (Terlipressin or Octreotide), prophylactic intravenous Ceftriaxone (1 g/day), and urgent upper endoscopy for Endoscopic Band Ligation (EBL)
B.High-dose intravenous Omeprazole infusion, oral Propranolol 80 mg, and emergency transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
C.Intravenous Vasopressin monotherapy, oral Tranexamic acid, and placement of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube as first-line therapy
D.Fresh frozen plasma transfusion to fully normalize INR, intravenous Aminocaproic acid, and surgical portacaval shunt
Explanation: Acute esophageal variceal hemorrhage management in cirrhosis comprises: (1) restrictive blood transfusion (target Hb 7-8 g/dL), (2) early vasoactive therapy (Terlipressin, Octreotide, or Somatostatin) to lower portal pressure, (3) short-term antibiotic prophylaxis with IV Ceftriaxone (1 g/day for 7 days) to prevent bacterial infections and rebleeding, and (4) diagnostic and therapeutic upper endoscopy within 12 hours for Endoscopic Variceal Ligation (EBL).

About the Examen Integrado — Medicina Exam

The Examen Integrado de Residencias de la Salud (Medicina) is Argentina's official nationwide unified examination for admission to medical residency programs in national, provincial, municipal, and participating private hospital institutions. Governed under Ministerio de Salud de la Nación Resolución 555/2026 and administered by the CAEI, it tests clinical competence across internal medicine, pediatrics, general surgery, obstetrics and gynecology, and public health and bioethics. Language note: the Examen Integrado is set and sat entirely in Spanish, against the official MSAL temario for Medicina. These practice questions are an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation built from that official scope — they are not an official translation, not published or endorsed by the Ministerio de Salud de la Nación, and not a simulation of the exam's Spanish-language testing environment. Official exam names, Argentine statute numbers and local clinical terms are kept in Spanish so you can match them to the real bibliography.

Assessment

Single 4-hour morning session with 100 clinical and conceptual questions administered digitally on synchronized tablets.

Time Limit

3 hours (180 minutes)

Passing Score

Ranked by competitive merit order (orden de mérito): 1 point per correct answer out of 100, with no penalty for wrong or blank answers; the exam score is combined with the candidate's certified undergraduate grade point average. Resolución 555/2026 sets no national minimum score — each participating concurso publishes its own cut-off and vacancy list.

Exam Fee

Free ($0 ARS) (Ministerio de Salud de la Nación / Comité de Adhesión al Examen Integrado (CAEI))

Examen Integrado — Medicina Exam Content Outline

28%

Internal Medicine

Cardiology (ACS, STEMI/NSTEMI, heart failure, hypertension, arrhythmias), Pulmonology (CAP, COPD, asthma, pleural effusion), Gastroenterology & Hepatology (cirrhosis, ascites, GI bleeding, acute pancreatitis), Nephrology (AKI, CKD, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis), Endocrinology (DKA, HHS, type 2 diabetes, hypothyroidism, Addison's disease), Infectious Diseases (HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis, dengue, Chagas disease, infective endocarditis, sepsis), Neurology (ischemic/hemorrhagic stroke, meningitis, epilepsy), and Hematology (anemias, thrombocytopenia).

22%

Pediatrics

Normal growth and psychomotor development milestones, breastfeeding and infant nutrition (SAP guidelines), acute bronchiolitis (etiology: RSV, supportive management), community-acquired pneumonia in children, acute gastroenteritis and dehydration (WHO/SAP oral rehydration plans A/B/C), exanthematous diseases (measles, rubella, erythema infectiosum, roseola, varicella), Calendario Nacional de Vacunación (BCG, Pentavalente, IPV, Neumococo conjugada, Triple Viral, Varicela, VPH, Menveo), pediatric emergencies, neonatal jaundice, and APGAR score.

18%

General Surgery

Acute abdomen (acute appendicitis diagnosis and Alvarado score, acute cholecystitis, diverticulitis, acute bowel obstruction, hollow viscus perforation), trauma & ATLS principles (primary survey ABCDE, tension pneumothorax, massive hemothorax, hemorrhagic shock classification and resuscitation), thermal burns (rule of nines, Parkland formula), abdominal wall hernias (inguinal vs femoral), and surgical wound infections and asepsis.

18%

Obstetrics & Gynecology

Prenatal care routine screening (Naegele's rule, 1st trimester labs), hypertensive disorders of pregnancy (gestational hypertension, preeclampsia with/without severe features, eclampsia, magnesium sulfate protocol), first-trimester bleeding (spontaneous abortion types, ectopic pregnancy, gestational trophoblastic disease), third-trimester bleeding (placenta previa, abruptio placentae), gestational diabetes screening (OGTT at 24-28 weeks), normal labor stages and postpartum hemorrhage prevention (active management of 3rd stage, oxytocin), cervical cancer screening (PAP and HPV testing guidelines in Argentina), abnormal uterine bleeding, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

14%

Public Health & Bioethics

Primary Health Care (APS) and community epidemiology, epidemiological surveillance and mandatory notification (SIVE/SISA under Ley 15.465), Ley Nacional 26.529 (Derechos del Paciente, Historia Clínica y Consentimiento Informado), Ley 26.657 (Ley Nacional de Salud Mental), Ley 27.610 (Acceso a la Interrupción Voluntaria y Legal del Embarazo - IVE/ILE), bioethics principles (autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice), and professional confidentiality (secreto médico).

How to Pass the Examen Integrado — Medicina Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Ranked by competitive merit order (orden de mérito): 1 point per correct answer out of 100, with no penalty for wrong or blank answers; the exam score is combined with the candidate's certified undergraduate grade point average. Resolución 555/2026 sets no national minimum score — each participating concurso publishes its own cut-off and vacancy list.
  • Assessment: Single 4-hour morning session with 100 clinical and conceptual questions administered digitally on synchronized tablets.
  • Time limit: 3 hours (180 minutes)
  • Exam fee: Free ($0 ARS)

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Examen Integrado — Medicina Study Tips from Top Performers

1Anchor your clinical management in official Sociedad Argentina de Pediatría (SAP), Sociedad Argentina de Cardiología (SAC), and Ministerio de Salud (MSAL) clinical guidelines.
2Thoroughly review Argentine health legislation, specifically Ley 26.529 (Patient Rights), Ley 26.657 (Mental Health), Ley 27.610 (IVE/ILE), and Ley 15.465 (Mandatory Notification / SISA).
3Memorize the exact Calendario Nacional de Vacunación schedule, including vaccine formulations (Pentavalente, IPV, Menveo, Triple Viral, Varicela, VPH) and timing across infancy and adolescence.
4Master high-yield acute clinical scores and formulas: Alvarado score for appendicitis, Tokyo Guidelines for cholecystitis, Parkland formula for burns, CURB-65 for CAP, and Zuspan magnesium sulfate protocol for preeclampsia.
5Practice strict pacing of 100 questions in 180 minutes (1.8 minutes per question) on digital tablet-like screens to build stamina and speed.
6Review high-yield Argentine epidemiology, including Chagas disease diagnostic serology (ELISA + IFI/HAI), Dengue warning signs, and the 2HRZE/4HR tuberculosis regimen.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the Examen Integrado de Residencias — Medicina?

The Examen Integrado is Argentina's unified national examination for medical residency training positions in national hospitals, provincial healthcare systems, municipal facilities, and participating private institutions. It is governed by the Ministerio de Salud de la Nación under the Comité de Adhesión al Examen Integrado (CAEI).

How is the exam structured and administered?

The exam consists of exactly 100 multiple-choice questions with four options each (one single best answer). Candidates have 3 hours (180 minutes) to complete the test. The examination is administered digitally on secure, synchronized electronic tablets at designated testing headquarters across Argentina.

How is the final merit score (orden de mérito) calculated under Resolución 555/2026?

For basic medical specialties, the final ranking score is composed of three components: the exam score (up to 100 points, 1 point per correct answer), the medical school academic grade point average (promedio general con aplazos), and an additional 5-point weighting incentive bonus for graduates of accredited Argentine universities.

What are the five core clinical blueprint domains?

The blueprint covers Internal Medicine (~28%), Pediatrics (~22%), General Surgery (~18%), Obstetrics and Gynecology (~18%), and Public Health & Bioethics (~14%), reflecting the comprehensive knowledge required for primary and hospital care practice in Argentina.

How much does it cost to register for the Argentine residency exam?

Registration for the national residency competition through the SISA portal is completely free ($0 ARS), reflecting Argentina's public, universal health residency system.

Is this practice bank in Spanish like the real exam?

No. The Examen Integrado is administered in Spanish only. This bank is an English-language multiple-choice study adaptation derived from the official MSAL temario and bibliography, intended for candidates who prefer to revise the underlying clinical knowledge in English. It is not an official translation and does not reproduce official exam items; Argentine law numbers, programme names and clinical terminology are retained in Spanish so they map onto the real exam.