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100+ Free Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Practice Questions

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Key Facts: Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Exam

MCQ

Four-option multiple-choice paper on OMR sheets

Ministry of Public Health exit-exam notice

MoPH + NExA

Administered jointly by the ministry and the National Examination Authority

Ministry of Public Health exit-exam notice

Per sitting

Item count, duration, fee and pass mark are announced per sitting, not published as standing values

Ministry of Public Health exit-exam notice

Mandatory

Passing is required before the diploma practice licence is issued

Ministry of Public Health

The Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam (امتحان خروجی/ایگزیت انستیتیوت‌های علوم صحی) is the national exit examination that Institute of Health Sciences diploma graduates must pass to obtain a diploma midwife practice licence. It is announced and administered by the Ministry of Public Health with the National Examination Authority as a four-option multiple-choice paper on OMR answer sheets; the ministry publishes a subject reference for the discipline but does not publish a standing item count, duration, fee or pass mark. The official examination is administered in Dari and Pashto; this bank is an English-language MCQ study adaptation for conceptual preparation, not an official translation or a simulation of the official paper.

Sample Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 22-year-old primigravida presents to the antenatal clinic for her first routine visit. She states that the first day of her last normal menstrual period (LMP) was June 10, 2025. Her menstrual cycles have always been regular, lasting 28 days. Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A.March 10, 2026
B.March 17, 2026
C.March 24, 2026
D.April 17, 2026
Explanation: According to Naegele's rule for calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD), add 7 days to the first day of the last normal menstrual period (LMP), subtract 3 months, and add 1 year (or add 9 months and 7 days). For an LMP of June 10, 2025: June 10 + 7 days = June 17; subtracting 3 months gives March 17, 2026.
2A 19-year-old multigravida at 14 weeks of gestation visits the basic health center (BHC) for routine antenatal care. According to WHO and national maternal health guidelines, what is the standard daily preventive dose of iron and folic acid (IFA) supplementation recommended throughout pregnancy?
A.30–60 mg elemental iron and 400 mcg (0.4 mg) folic acid daily
B.120 mg elemental iron and 5 mg folic acid daily
C.10 mg elemental iron and 100 mcg folic acid daily
D.60 mg elemental iron taken once weekly without folic acid
Explanation: WHO and Ministry of Public Health (MoPH) guidelines recommend daily oral supplementation of 30 to 60 mg of elemental iron (equivalent to 200 mg of ferrous sulfate) and 400 mcg (0.4 mg) of folic acid for all pregnant women to prevent maternal anemia, puerperal sepsis, low birth weight, and neural tube defects.
3A 20-year-old woman in her first pregnancy attends her first antenatal care visit at 16 weeks of gestation with no prior vaccination records. The midwife administers her first dose of Tetanus-Diphtheria toxoid (Td1/TT1). When should the midwife schedule the second dose (Td2/TT2) to ensure protective immunity for both mother and newborn?
A.Exactly 1 week after the first dose
B.At 6 weeks postpartum during the postnatal checkup
C.At least 4 weeks after the first dose, and at least 2 weeks before delivery
D.6 months after the first dose regardless of delivery date
Explanation: To prevent maternal and neonatal tetanus, a pregnant woman with unknown vaccination status requires at least two doses of tetanus toxoid during her first pregnancy. Td2/TT2 should be given at least 4 weeks after Td1 and ideally at least 2 to 4 weeks before delivery to allow adequate maternal antibody synthesis and transplacental IgG transfer.
4During an antenatal checkup of a woman at 28 weeks of gestation, the midwife performs an abdominal examination to measure the symphysis-fundal height (SFH). Which landmark correctly corresponds to the expected fundal height at approximately 20 to 22 weeks of gestation in a singleton pregnancy?
A.Just above the pubic symphysis
B.Halfway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus
C.At the level of the xiphoid process
D.At the level of the maternal umbilicus
Explanation: In a normal singleton pregnancy, the uterine fundus reaches the level of the pubic symphysis at 12 weeks, is halfway between the symphysis and umbilicus at 16 weeks, reaches the level of the umbilicus at 20 to 22 weeks, and reaches the xiphoid process at 36 weeks.
5A 26-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation presents to the clinic complaining of a persistent severe frontal headache and blurred vision. Her blood pressure is 165/115 mmHg on two readings taken 15 minutes apart, and urine dipstick reveals 3+ proteinuria. What is the most accurate clinical diagnosis?
A.Severe pre-eclampsia
B.Gestational hypertension
C.Chronic hypertension
D.Mild pre-eclampsia
Explanation: Preeclampsia is diagnosed when hypertension (BP >= 140/90 mmHg) develops after 20 weeks of gestation accompanied by proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction. The presence of systolic BP >= 160 mmHg, diastolic BP >= 110 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and neurological symptoms (severe headache, visual disturbances) classifies this condition as severe pre-eclampsia, which requires immediate stabilization and anticonvulsant prophylaxis.
6A 24-year-old woman at 35 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia at a rural Comprehensive Health Center (CHC). Before urgent referral to a provincial hospital, what is the recommended standard loading dose of Magnesium Sulfate (MgSO4) to prevent eclamptic convulsions according to WHO/Pritchard protocol?
A.10 g oral magnesium sulfate with a glass of water
B.4 g IV (20% solution over 10–15 minutes) PLUS 10 g IM (5 g of 50% solution in each buttock)
C.2 g IV bolus followed by immediate intravenous diazepam 20 mg
D.5 g IM single dose in the deltoid muscle
Explanation: According to the Pritchard regimen (WHO/BEmONC guidelines), the loading dose of Magnesium Sulfate consists of 4 g IV as a 20% solution administered slowly over 10–15 minutes, combined with 10 g IM (5 g of 50% solution injected deep intramuscularly into each buttock with 1 mL 2% lidocaine to minimize pain). This rapidly establishes therapeutic serum levels before transport.
7A midwife is monitoring a pre-eclamptic patient receiving maintenance doses of intravenous Magnesium Sulfate. Prior to administering the next maintenance dose, which clinical assessment finding indicates Magnesium Sulfate toxicity and requires immediately withholding the drug?
A.Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and heart rate of 82 bpm
B.Presence of brisk patellar reflexes (+3)
C.Absent patellar (knee-jerk) reflex and respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
D.Urine output of 45 mL per hour
Explanation: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity follow a predictable clinical sequence: loss of deep tendon (patellar) reflexes occurs first (at 8–10 mEq/L), followed by respiratory depression (< 16 breaths/min), and eventually cardiac arrest. If patellar reflexes are absent or respiratory rate drops below 16/min, the infusion must be stopped immediately and 10% Calcium Gluconate (1 g IV over 10 minutes) kept ready as the antidote.
8A 30-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks of gestation presents with severe fatigue, pallor of the conjunctiva and palmar creases, and breathlessness on light exertion. Laboratory testing confirms a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL. How is this condition classified according to WHO criteria, and what is the appropriate management?
A.Mild anemia; manage with dietary counseling and oral iron tablets
B.Moderate anemia; double the daily prophylactic oral iron dose
C.Physiological hemodilution; no medical intervention is needed
D.Severe anemia; urgent referral to a CEmONC facility for evaluation and likely blood transfusion
Explanation: WHO classifies anemia in pregnancy as mild (10.0–10.9 g/dL), moderate (7.0–9.9 g/dL), and severe (< 7.0 g/dL). A hemoglobin of 5.8 g/dL represents severe anemia in the third trimester, which puts the mother at high risk of congestive heart failure and fatal postpartum hemorrhage. She requires urgent transfer to a Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (CEmONC) facility for cross-matching and transfusion of packed red cells.
9A 29-year-old multigravida at 33 weeks of gestation arrives at the labor room reporting sudden onset of bright red vaginal bleeding that started while resting. She denies abdominal pain or uterine contractions. On examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender, and fetal heart rate is 144 bpm. What critical action is strictly contraindicated?
A.Digital vaginal examination
B.Abdominal ultrasound examination
C.Inserting a large-bore intravenous cannula
D.Checking maternal blood pressure and pulse
Explanation: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the classic presentation of placenta previa. Performing a digital vaginal examination (speculum or finger) can tear the low-lying or central placenta covering the internal os, provoking massive, life-threatening maternal hemorrhage. Digital examination must never be performed until placenta previa has been excluded by ultrasound.
10A 32-year-old gravida 4 para 3 at 36 weeks of gestation presents with sudden, severe continuous lower abdominal pain, dark vaginal bleeding, and a tense, tender, board-like uterus that does not relax. Fetal heart sounds are muffled and irregular at 100 bpm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Placenta previa
B.Abruptio placentae (placental abruption)
C.Uterine rupture prior to labor
D.Incompetent cervix
Explanation: Placental abruption (abruptio placentae) is characterized by premature separation of the normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall. The classic triad includes painful dark vaginal bleeding, a hard (woody/hypertonic) and exquisitely tender uterus, and fetal distress (bradycardia or abnormal heart rate patterns).

About the Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Exam

The Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam (امتحان دولتی قابلگی عالی) is the statutory national licensing examination administered by NExA for graduates of midwifery diploma programs to grant professional practice credentials.

Assessment

Four-option multiple-choice paper marked on OMR answer sheets, announced per sitting by the Ministry of Public Health with NExA and set against the ministry's published discipline reference covering Antenatal Care, Intrapartum Care, Postpartum and Obstetric Emergencies, Essential Newborn Care, and Family Planning and Ethics. The official item count and session length are not published.

Time Limit

Not published by the Ministry of Public Health or the National Examination Authority

Passing Score

Set by the Ministry of Public Health for each sitting; no standing pass mark published

Exam Fee

Set per sitting by the Ministry of Public Health; the current fee is not published (Ministry of Public Health (MoPH — انستیتوت های علوم صحی) and National Examination Authority (NExA))

Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Exam Content Outline

25 practice items in this bank

Antenatal Care & High-Risk Pregnancy

Gestational assessment, maternal screening, danger sign identification, and maternal nutrition.

25 practice items in this bank

Intrapartum Care & Normal Delivery

Stages of labor, partograph plotting, AMTSL protocols, perineal care, and normal birth management.

20 practice items in this bank

Obstetric Emergencies (EmONC)

Postpartum hemorrhage, severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, magnesium sulfate administration, and sepsis.

15 practice items in this bank

Essential Newborn Care & Resuscitation

Immediate newborn care, temperature regulation, bag-mask ventilation, and APGAR assessment.

15 practice items in this bank

Family Planning, Infection Prevention & Ethics

Contraceptive technologies, post-abortion care, clinical infection control, and professional ethics.

How to Pass the Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Set by the Ministry of Public Health for each sitting; no standing pass mark published
  • Assessment: Four-option multiple-choice paper marked on OMR answer sheets, announced per sitting by the Ministry of Public Health with NExA and set against the ministry's published discipline reference covering Antenatal Care, Intrapartum Care, Postpartum and Obstetric Emergencies, Essential Newborn Care, and Family Planning and Ethics. The official item count and session length are not published.
  • Time limit: Not published by the Ministry of Public Health or the National Examination Authority
  • Exam fee: Set per sitting by the Ministry of Public Health; the current fee is not published

Keys to Passing

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the exact loading and maintenance dosage protocols for Magnesium Sulfate in severe preeclampsia and eclampsia.
2Review the three steps of Active Management of the Third Stage of Labor (AMTSL) and the first-line treatment for uterine atony.
3Understand partograph interpretation, including identifying prolonged active phase and cephalopelvic disproportion.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the structure of the Afghanistan Midwifery Exit Exam?

The examination is a 100-item multiple-choice test on OMR sheets administered during a single 2-hour session under NExA supervision.

Who must take the Midwifery Exit Exam?

All graduates of accredited 2-year Community Midwifery Education (CME) and 3-year High Midwifery diploma programs in Afghanistan.

What is the passing score and fee?

The Ministry of Public Health sets the pass mark and registration fee for each announced sitting; neither is published as a standing value.

What language is the official examination conducted in?

The official exam is administered in Dari and Pashto. Our study bank provides an English-language MCQ practice adaptation for clinical concept mastery.