100+ Free Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Practice Questions

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Sample Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 62-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain for 40 minutes. ECG shows 2 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. He is at a hospital with a cardiac catheterisation laboratory available within 60 minutes. What is the most appropriate reperfusion strategy?

A.Fibrinolysis with alteplase

B.Primary percutaneous coronary intervention

C.Coronary artery bypass grafting

D.High-intensity statin alone

Explanation: This is an inferior ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). When primary PCI can be delivered within 120 minutes of diagnosis, it is the preferred reperfusion strategy because it achieves higher rates of patent infarct-related arteries and lower reinfarction and bleeding risk than fibrinolysis.

2A 70-year-old man with HFrEF (LVEF 30%) on an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker remains symptomatic (NYHA II). Which additional agent has the strongest evidence to reduce mortality and heart-failure hospitalisation regardless of diabetes status?

A.Digoxin

B.Amlodipine

C.An SGLT2 inhibitor (e.g. dapagliflozin)

D.Ivabradine

Explanation: SGLT2 inhibitors such as dapagliflozin and empagliflozin reduce cardiovascular death and heart-failure hospitalisation in HFrEF irrespective of diabetes status and are now a core pillar of guideline-directed medical therapy alongside ACE inhibitor/ARNI, beta-blocker and MRA.

3A 68-year-old woman with non-valvular atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 and no contraindication to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate therapy to prevent stroke?

A.Aspirin 75 mg daily

B.A direct oral anticoagulant (e.g. apixaban)

C.No antithrombotic therapy

D.Clopidogrel monotherapy

Explanation: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 indicates high stroke risk, and oral anticoagulation is recommended. DOACs are preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF because of comparable or superior efficacy with lower intracranial haemorrhage risk and no routine monitoring.

4A 55-year-old man has clinic blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg on three occasions and no diabetes or chronic kidney disease. He is of African ancestry. Which first-line antihypertensive class is most appropriate?

A.ACE inhibitor

B.Calcium channel blocker

C.Beta-blocker

D.Alpha-blocker

Explanation: In patients of African or Caribbean ancestry without diabetes, a calcium channel blocker (or thiazide-like diuretic) is preferred first-line because RAS-blocking drugs are, on average, less effective as monotherapy in this group.

5A 48-year-old man presents with sudden severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 150/90 mmHg in the left arm. CT angiography shows an intimal flap in the ascending aorta. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A.Intravenous labetalol and urgent surgical referral

B.Intravenous thrombolysis

C.Oral aspirin and observation

D.Immediate primary PCI

Explanation: This is a Stanford type A aortic dissection. Initial management is rapid heart-rate and blood-pressure control with an intravenous beta-blocker such as labetalol to reduce aortic wall shear stress, combined with emergency surgical repair, which is the definitive treatment for type A dissection.

6A 30-year-old woman is found to have an irregularly irregular pulse. ECG shows absent P waves and an irregular ventricular response. She is haemodynamically stable with no structural heart disease. Which finding best distinguishes atrial fibrillation from multifocal atrial tachycardia?

A.Presence of at least three distinct P-wave morphologies

B.Complete absence of organised atrial activity (no P waves)

C.A fixed PR interval

D.Regular RR intervals

Explanation: Atrial fibrillation is characterised by complete absence of organised P waves with a fibrillatory baseline and an irregularly irregular ventricular response. Multifocal atrial tachycardia, by contrast, shows discrete P waves of at least three different morphologies.

7A 60-year-old man with stable angina has an LDL-cholesterol of 3.6 mmol/L despite lifestyle measures. He has established coronary artery disease. What is the most appropriate lipid-lowering strategy?

A.Low-intensity statin

B.High-intensity statin (e.g. atorvastatin 80 mg)

C.Fibrate monotherapy

D.Omega-3 fatty acids alone

Explanation: Patients with established atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease are at high risk and benefit from high-intensity statin therapy to achieve a substantial LDL-cholesterol reduction (target below 1.8 mmol/L or a 50% reduction), which lowers recurrent cardiovascular events.

8A 75-year-old man presents with exertional syncope, an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids, and a slow-rising pulse. Echocardiography confirms severe aortic stenosis. Which symptom carries the worst prognosis without intervention?

A.Syncope

B.Angina

C.Heart failure (dyspnoea)

D.Palpitations

Explanation: In severe aortic stenosis the classic triad is angina, syncope and dyspnoea, all indicating the need for valve replacement. Of these, the onset of heart failure (dyspnoea) carries the worst untreated prognosis, with median survival of roughly two years.

9A 58-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents with chest discomfort. Troponin is elevated but the ECG shows no ST elevation. After aspirin, what is the most appropriate next antithrombotic step in this NSTEMI?

A.Add a second antiplatelet agent (e.g. ticagrelor) and anticoagulation

B.Start warfarin

C.Give fibrinolysis

D.Withhold all further antithrombotics

Explanation: In NSTEMI, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a P2Y12 inhibitor such as ticagrelor or clopidogrel) combined with parenteral anticoagulation (e.g. fondaparinux or heparin) reduces recurrent ischaemic events while awaiting risk stratification and possible angiography.

10A 35-year-old man presents with pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward. ECG shows widespread concave (saddle-shaped) ST elevation and PR depression. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Acute pericarditis

B.Anterior STEMI

C.Pulmonary embolism

D.Aortic dissection

Explanation: Pleuritic chest pain relieved by leaning forward, widespread concave ST elevation and PR-segment depression are classic features of acute pericarditis. A pericardial friction rub may also be heard.

About the Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Exam

The Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 examination is the written assessment in the Arab Board of Health Specializations internal medicine training programme, sat across Arab League member countries including the UAE. It is a single paper of approximately 150 best-of-five single-best-answer multiple-choice questions in clinical-vignette format, completed in about three hours, testing core internal medicine knowledge required to progress in specialty training.

Assessment

A single written paper of approximately 150 best-of-five single-best-answer MCQs in clinical-vignette style, covering the breadth of internal medicine.

Time Limit

Approximately 3 hours for the single written paper

Passing Score

No single fixed pass mark is published publicly by ABHS; a threshold of around 60% is commonly reported by candidates, though the definitive standard is set by the Arab Board scientific council. Confirm with your training centre.

Exam Fee

Set by the Arab Board of Health Specializations and the national council in each member country and revised periodically; confirm the current Part 1 fee with your local Arab Board office. (Arab Board of Health Specializations (ABHS))

Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Exam Content Outline

16%

Cardiology

Acute coronary syndromes, heart failure, arrhythmias, valvular disease, hypertension and cardiomyopathies.

11%

Respiratory Medicine

COPD, asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, interstitial lung disease, tuberculosis and respiratory failure.

12%

Gastroenterology and Hepatology

Peptic ulcer disease, IBD, cirrhosis and its complications, pancreatitis and GI bleeding.

11%

Nephrology

Acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome and mineral bone disorders.

11%

Endocrinology

Diabetes and emergencies, thyroid disease, adrenal and pituitary disorders and secondary hypertension.

Rheumatology

Gout, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, vasculitis, spondyloarthritis and connective tissue disease.

Hematology

Anaemias, haemoglobinopathies, thrombocytopenia, myeloma and venous thromboembolism.

Infectious Disease

Sepsis, meningitis, endocarditis, malaria, tuberculosis and HIV-related care.

Neurology

Stroke, subarachnoid haemorrhage, seizures, Parkinson disease, multiple sclerosis and neuromuscular disease.

Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base

Sodium and potassium disorders, calcium disturbance and arterial blood gas interpretation.

Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics

Anticoagulation, drug interactions, toxicology and adverse drug effects in internal medicine.

How to Pass the Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: No single fixed pass mark is published publicly by ABHS; a threshold of around 60% is commonly reported by candidates, though the definitive standard is set by the Arab Board scientific council. Confirm with your training centre.
Assessment: A single written paper of approximately 150 best-of-five single-best-answer MCQs in clinical-vignette style, covering the breadth of internal medicine.
Time limit: Approximately 3 hours for the single written paper
Exam fee: Set by the Arab Board of Health Specializations and the national council in each member country and revised periodically; confirm the current Part 1 fee with your local Arab Board office.

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Study Tips from Top Performers

1Practise full-length timed best-of-five MCQs, because the Arab Board Part 1 paper is long and clinical-vignette based, so reading speed and decision-making under time pressure matter.

2Anchor your revision in current internal medicine guidelines and thresholds (for example CURB-65, CHA2DS2-VASc, SAAG and DKA management), since the exam rewards applying specific cut-offs to clinical scenarios.

3Weight your revision toward the high-yield systems of cardiology, respiratory, renal, endocrine and gastroenterology, which together dominate the internal medicine blueprint.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the format of the Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 exam?

The Part 1 written exam is a single paper of approximately 150 best-of-five single-best-answer multiple-choice questions in clinical-vignette style, completed in about three hours. It is administered by the Arab Board of Health Specializations across member countries including the UAE.

What passing score is required for the Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 exam?

ABHS does not publish a single fixed pass mark in the public domain. A threshold of around 60% is commonly reported by candidates, but the definitive standard is set by the Arab Board scientific council, so confirm the current requirement with your training centre.

Which subjects does the Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 exam cover?

It covers the breadth of internal medicine, including cardiology, respiratory medicine, gastroenterology and hepatology, nephrology, endocrinology, rheumatology, hematology, infectious disease, neurology, fluid and electrolyte balance and clinical pharmacology.

Are these 100 practice questions official Arab Board questions?

No. These are free original practice questions written to mirror the best-of-five MCQ style and internal medicine content of the Arab Board Part 1 exam. They are study aids and are not actual or licensed ABHS examination questions.

100+ Free Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Practice Questions

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