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100+ Free ABS General Surgery Practice Questions

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~85-90% first-time among U.S. general surgery residency graduates (ABS annual statistics) Pass Rate
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A 28-year-old otherwise healthy man presents with 18 hours of periumbilical pain that has migrated to the right lower quadrant, anorexia, and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has focal tenderness at McBurney point with involuntary guarding, WBC 14,200, and a CT confirms a 9 mm non-perforated appendix with periappendiceal fat stranding. What is the most appropriate next step?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABS General Surgery Exam

~300

Total MCQ Items

ABS General Surgery Qualifying Examination

~8 hr

Total Exam Time

1-day computer-based test including breaks

~20%

Alimentary Tract Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 ABS content outline

~$1,750

2026 Combined QE/CE Fee

ABS (verify current schedule)

5 yr

Residency Training

ACGME-accredited general surgery residency

~85-90%

First-Time Pass Rate

ABS annual statistics (U.S. residency graduates)

The ABS General Surgery Qualifying Exam is a 1-day computer-based test from the American Board of Surgery comprising approximately 300 single-best-answer MCQs over ~8 hours at Pearson VUE. Content spans alimentary tract (~20%), abdomen (~12%), applied science/perioperative (~13%), surgical critical care (~10%), vascular (~8-10%), trauma (~8%), breast/skin/soft tissue (~8-10%), endocrine (~5-7%), surgical oncology (~5%), thoracic (~3-5%), pediatric (~3%), MIS/endoscopy (~3-5%), head and neck (~3%), transplant (~2%), and ethics/biostats (~2-3%). Combined QE/CE application fee is ~$1,750; requires completion of an ACGME-accredited general surgery residency (5 years).

Sample ABS General Surgery Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABS General Surgery exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 28-year-old otherwise healthy man presents with 18 hours of periumbilical pain that has migrated to the right lower quadrant, anorexia, and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has focal tenderness at McBurney point with involuntary guarding, WBC 14,200, and a CT confirms a 9 mm non-perforated appendix with periappendiceal fat stranding. What is the most appropriate next step?
A.Admit for IV antibiotics alone (non-operative management) with outpatient follow-up
B.Laparoscopic appendectomy within 24 hours
C.Percutaneous drainage by interventional radiology
D.Colonoscopy to exclude an obstructing cecal mass
Explanation: For uncomplicated acute appendicitis in an adult, laparoscopic appendectomy remains the standard and is typically performed within 24 hours of diagnosis. The CODA trial showed non-operative management is a reasonable alternative, but nearly half of patients crossed over to surgery by 4 years, and it is reserved for select patients. Percutaneous drainage is used for a contained periappendiceal abscess, and screening colonoscopy is not indicated in a 28-year-old without concerning features.
2A 55-year-old woman presents with postprandial right upper quadrant pain, no fever, WBC 7,000, normal LFTs, and ultrasound shows cholelithiasis without wall thickening or pericholecystic fluid. She has had three similar episodes over the past six months. What is the best management?
A.Ursodeoxycholic acid for 12 months
B.Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy
C.Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
D.Observation only
Explanation: Symptomatic cholelithiasis (biliary colic) is an indication for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Ursodeoxycholic acid dissolution and shock wave lithotripsy have high recurrence rates and are not standard. Observation risks progression to acute cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, or gallstone pancreatitis.
3A 62-year-old man with gallstone pancreatitis has resolved abdominal pain, normalizing lipase, and mild improvement of LFTs on hospital day 3. MRCP shows no retained common bile duct stone. What is the most appropriate timing for cholecystectomy?
A.Interval cholecystectomy in 6 weeks
B.Same admission, after clinical improvement
C.Defer unless recurrence occurs
D.Immediately, on admission day 1
Explanation: For mild gallstone pancreatitis, same-admission (index) laparoscopic cholecystectomy after clinical improvement reduces recurrent biliary events without increasing operative morbidity (PONCHO trial). Delaying 6 weeks leads to readmissions in up to 20% of patients.
4During elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon identifies Calot triangle but the anatomy is unclear and the gallbladder is severely inflamed. Which action best minimizes the risk of common bile duct injury?
A.Continue blunt dissection until something tubular is identified, then clip
B.Achieve the critical view of safety or convert to subtotal cholecystectomy / open
C.Perform a routine transcystic common duct exploration
D.Administer IV indocyanine green and rely on fluorescence alone without further dissection
Explanation: The SAGES safe cholecystectomy program recommends achieving the critical view of safety (only two tubular structures entering the gallbladder with the base of the triangle cleared of fat and fibrous tissue). If it cannot be achieved, the surgeon should bail out by converting to open, performing subtotal cholecystectomy, or obtaining a cholangiogram. ICG is adjunctive but does not replace anatomic dissection.
5A 48-year-old man with a prior midline laparotomy presents with 24 hours of crampy abdominal pain, bilious emesis, and obstipation. Abdomen is distended and tender without peritonitis. CT shows dilated small bowel loops to a transition point in the mid-abdomen with decompressed distal bowel, no pneumatosis or free air, and no closed loop. Lactate is normal. What is the most appropriate initial management?
A.NPO, NG decompression, IV fluids, and serial exams
B.Immediate exploratory laparotomy
C.Colonoscopic decompression
D.Start TPN and await spontaneous resolution over 2 weeks
Explanation: Simple adhesive small bowel obstruction without signs of ischemia, closed loop, or peritonitis is managed initially with bowel rest, nasogastric decompression, IV fluids, and serial abdominal exams. Gastrografin challenge can be used to predict resolution and accelerate recovery. Surgery is indicated for failure to resolve in 3 to 5 days or any sign of strangulation.
6In the AJCC 8th edition TNM staging of colon cancer, a tumor that has invaded through the muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues with 4 positive regional lymph nodes and no distant metastases is staged as:
A.Stage IIA (T3N0M0)
B.Stage IIIB (T3N2aM0)
C.Stage IIIC (T4bN2bM0)
D.Stage IVA (T3N2aM1a)
Explanation: T3 = through muscularis propria into pericolorectal tissues. N2a = 4 to 6 positive nodes. M0 = no distant spread. T3N2aM0 is stage IIIB per AJCC 8. Adjuvant chemotherapy (FOLFOX or CAPOX) is recommended.
7A 65-year-old man has a biopsy-proven adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon. CT shows no metastases. Preoperative CEA is 8.2 ng/mL. Per NCCN 2026 guidelines for colon cancer resection, what is the minimum number of lymph nodes that should be examined to adequately stage the tumor?
A.6
B.12
C.18
D.24
Explanation: NCCN and AJCC require at least 12 lymph nodes for adequate staging of colon cancer. Fewer than 12 nodes reviewed is associated with understaging and may warrant consideration of adjuvant therapy even in apparent stage II disease.
8A 58-year-old man presents with a reducible right groin bulge that appears with straining. Exam confirms an inguinal hernia; he has no prior groin surgery. Which repair is considered the gold standard for primary unilateral inguinal hernia in an adult male in most open-repair settings?
A.Bassini repair
B.McVay (Cooper ligament) repair
C.Lichtenstein tension-free mesh repair
D.Shouldice repair without mesh
Explanation: The Lichtenstein tension-free mesh repair is the standard open approach with low recurrence rates (<1-4%). TEP and TAPP laparoscopic repairs are also acceptable, particularly for bilateral or recurrent hernias. Bassini and McVay are primarily of historical importance for unilateral repair in well-resourced settings; Shouldice (tissue repair) is used in select centers when mesh is contraindicated.
9Which structure forms the medial border of the Hesselbach triangle?
A.Inguinal ligament
B.Inferior epigastric vessels
C.Rectus abdominis lateral border
D.Pubic tubercle
Explanation: Hesselbach triangle is bordered medially by the lateral edge of the rectus abdominis, laterally by the inferior epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament. Direct inguinal hernias protrude through this floor of the inguinal canal.
10A 70-year-old man undergoes pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple) for a 2.5 cm pancreatic head adenocarcinoma. Postoperative pathology shows a negative margin, 2 of 18 lymph nodes positive. According to NCCN 2026, which adjuvant regimen offers the best overall survival in fit patients?
A.Gemcitabine monotherapy for 6 months
B.Modified FOLFIRINOX (mFOLFIRINOX) for 6 months
C.Capecitabine monotherapy
D.Observation only since margins are negative
Explanation: The PRODIGE 24 trial showed mFOLFIRINOX significantly improved median overall survival (54.4 vs 35.0 months) compared with gemcitabine in resected pancreatic adenocarcinoma. NCCN 2026 recommends mFOLFIRINOX as preferred adjuvant therapy for fit patients; gemcitabine/capecitabine is an alternative. Adjuvant therapy is indicated regardless of margin status.

About the ABS General Surgery Exam

The ABS General Surgery Qualifying Examination (QE) is the written, computer-based portion of initial ABS certification in general surgery. Content spans alimentary tract (esophagus, stomach, small/large bowel, rectum, anorectal, bariatric), abdomen (hernia, biliary, pancreas, spleen), applied science and perioperative care (fluids/electrolytes, nutrition, wound healing, transfusion, pharmacology, anesthesia, immunology), surgical critical care (Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021, ARDSnet ventilation, abdominal compartment syndrome), trauma (ATLS 10th edition, MTP 1:1:1, AAST organ grading, damage control), vascular (AAA, CEA, PAD, acute limb ischemia, mesenteric ischemia, aortic dissection), breast/skin/soft tissue (NCCN breast cancer, melanoma AJCC 8, sarcoma, necrotizing soft-tissue infection), endocrine (thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, pancreatic NETs, MEN), head and neck, thoracic (NSCLC staging, SPN, pneumothorax, mediastinal masses), pediatric surgery basics, surgical oncology, transplantation basics, minimally invasive surgery and endoscopy, and ethics/biostatistics. Requires completion of an ACGME-accredited general surgery residency (5 years).

Questions

300 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day CBT (~8 hours including breaks)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABS (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$1,750 combined QE/CE application fee (ABS 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Surgery (ABS) / Pearson VUE)

ABS General Surgery Exam Content Outline

~20%

Alimentary Tract

Esophagus (GERD, hiatal/paraesophageal hernia, achalasia — Heller myotomy + Dor fundoplication, Barrett's esophagus, esophageal cancer — NCCN staging and neoadjuvant), stomach (PUD, gastric cancer, GIST — imatinib for KIT/PDGFRA), small bowel (SBO, Crohn's — bowel-sparing, Meckel's diverticulum rule of 2s, carcinoid), colon (diverticulitis Hinchey classification, ulcerative colitis, colorectal cancer NCCN — screening age 45, CEA surveillance), rectum (TME, neoadjuvant chemoradiation, TAMIS/TEM for early T1), anorectal (hemorrhoids Goligher, fissure, fistula Parks, abscess), bariatric (ASMBS 2022 guidelines — RYGB, sleeve, SADI-S; deficiencies — B12, iron, thiamine Wernicke, calcium/vitamin D).

~13%

Applied Science & Perioperative Care

Preoperative risk (ASA, RCRI, NSQIP calculator, frailty), antibiotic prophylaxis (SCIP — cefazolin within 60 min, redose every 4 hr or blood loss >1,500 mL), VTE prophylaxis (Caprini), glycemic control, ERAS protocols; fluids/electrolytes (hypo/hypernatremia, K, Ca, Mg, acid-base); nutrition (enteral > parenteral when gut works, refeeding syndrome — phosphate, thiamine; immunonutrition); wound healing (phases, diabetic/vascular/pressure ulcers, NPWT); transfusion (MTP 1:1:1, TRALI, TACO, DIC, TEG); pharmacology; anesthesia (LAST, MH — dantrolene); immunology.

~12%

Abdomen — Hernia, Biliary, Pancreas, Spleen

Inguinal hernia (Lichtenstein, TEP, TAPP), ventral/incisional hernia (anterior/posterior component separation, TAR, Rives-Stoppa; mesh — synthetic vs biologic), hiatal/paraesophageal hernia, biliary (cholecystitis Tokyo Guidelines 2018, choledocholithiasis, Mirizzi syndrome, gallbladder cancer incidental, cholangiocarcinoma — Bismuth-Corlette), pancreas (acute pancreatitis revised Atlanta — interstitial vs necrotizing, walled-off necrosis; chronic pancreatitis; pancreatic adenocarcinoma — Whipple; IPMN — Fukuoka high-risk stigmata; pancreatic NETs including insulinoma/gastrinoma), spleen (trauma AAST, ITP, hereditary spherocytosis, post-splenectomy vaccines — pneumococcus, meningococcus, H. influenzae type b).

~10%

Surgical Critical Care

Shock classification, Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle (lactate, cultures before abx, broad-spectrum abx within 1 hr, 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension/lactate ≥4, vasopressor — norepinephrine first-line, target MAP ≥65), mechanical ventilation (ARDSnet 6 mL/kg IBW, plateau <30, prone >12 hr for P/F <150, ECMO), hemodynamic monitoring (lactate clearance, ScvO2), AKI (KDIGO stages), abdominal compartment syndrome (WSACS — IAP >20 with new organ dysfunction), delirium (CAM-ICU, limit benzos), rhabdomyolysis, stress ulcer prophylaxis, ICU infections (VAP, CLABSI, CAUTI).

~8-10%

Vascular Surgery

AAA (USPSTF screening — men 65-75 ever-smokers; repair ≥5.5 cm, rapid expansion >0.5 cm/6 mo, symptomatic; EVAR vs open), carotid stenosis (CEA for symptomatic ≥50% within 2 wk, asymptomatic ≥70%; CREST — CEA vs CAS), PAD (ABI <0.9, claudication, CLI Rutherford 4-6, WIfI), acute limb ischemia (6 Ps — pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia; Rutherford I-III), mesenteric ischemia (SMA embolus most common; NOMI; mesenteric venous thrombosis; chronic — postprandial pain, sitophobia), aortic dissection (Stanford A — surgical; B — medical ± TEVAR for complicated), DVT/PE (IVC filter indications), hemodialysis access (AV fistula > graft > catheter).

~8-10%

Breast, Skin & Soft Tissue

Breast cancer NCCN — screening mammography age 40-50 start, BRCA1/2 testing criteria and prophylactic mastectomy, lumpectomy + RT equivalent survival to mastectomy (NSABP B-06), SLNB (Z0011 — T1-T2 cN0 with 1-2+ SLN may skip ALND), neoadjuvant for triple-negative/HER2+ (KEYNOTE-522 pembrolizumab), endocrine therapy (tamoxifen premenopausal, AIs postmenopausal); DCIS (VNPI), LCIS, inflammatory breast cancer, Paget's, fibroadenoma/phyllodes; melanoma (Breslow, AJCC 8, SLNB ≥0.8 mm or thin high-risk; WLE 0.5-2 cm; adjuvant anti-PD-1); SCC/BCC (Mohs for H-zone); soft-tissue sarcoma (extremity — limb-sparing + RT; retroperitoneal — en bloc); necrotizing soft tissue infection (LRINEC, emergency debridement).

~8%

Trauma

ATLS 10th edition primary/secondary survey (ABCDE), airway (RSI, surgical cricothyroidotomy), hemorrhagic shock classes I-IV, massive transfusion protocol (1:1:1 plasma:platelets:RBC), FAST/E-FAST, pelvic binder for unstable pelvis, damage control surgery and resuscitation (permissive hypotension, TXA within 3 hr — CRASH-2), blunt vs penetrating abdominal trauma, zones of neck trauma (I/II/III), thoracic (tension pneumothorax — needle decompression 5th ICS anterior axillary, cardiac tamponade — Beck's triad, ED thoracotomy for penetrating loss of vitals in transit), AAST liver/spleen/kidney grading, TBI (Monro-Kellie, CPP = MAP − ICP), extremity (Gustilo-Anderson open fx, compartment syndrome ΔP <30).

~5-7%

Endocrine Surgery

Thyroid (TIRADS, Bethesda cytology I-VI; papillary most common; follicular; medullary — calcitonin, RET proto-oncogene, MEN2A/2B; anaplastic; Hurthle cell; lobectomy vs total thyroidectomy; central/lateral neck dissection; RLN and parathyroid preservation), hyperparathyroidism (primary — single adenoma 80%, sestamibi-SPECT, intraoperative PTH — Miami criterion >50% drop at 10 min), adrenal (incidentaloma workup — biochemical functional assessment; pheochromocytoma — alpha blockade before beta, 24-hr metanephrines or plasma free metanephrines; Cushing's; Conn's — aldosterone/renin; adrenocortical carcinoma — mitotane), pancreatic neuroendocrine (insulinoma Whipple's triad, gastrinoma — Zollinger-Ellison with MEN1), MEN1 (3 Ps), MEN2A/2B.

~5%

Surgical Oncology

Cancer biology (oncogenes, tumor suppressors p53/RB/APC, MMR deficiency and MSI-H — Lynch syndrome, HER2), staging principles (AJCC 8, TNM), sentinel lymph node concept and pathways, surgical margins by tumor type, neoadjuvant vs adjuvant therapy, PET-CT and advanced imaging, immunotherapy (anti-PD-1 pembrolizumab/nivolumab, anti-CTLA-4 ipilimumab), targeted therapy (imatinib for GIST, trastuzumab for HER2+, BRAF/MEK inhibitors for melanoma), multidisciplinary decision-making per NCCN.

~3-5%

Thoracic Surgery

NSCLC (TNM 8, lobectomy + mediastinal nodal dissection > sublobar for peripheral ≤2 cm; VATS/RATS; induction for N2; SBRT for medically inoperable early stage), SCLC (limited vs extensive — chemoradiation), solitary pulmonary nodule (Fleischner Society — size, morphology, risk-based follow-up), spontaneous pneumothorax (indications for VATS — recurrence, persistent air leak, bilateral, high-risk occupation), pleural effusion (Light's criteria), empyema stages (exudative, fibrinopurulent, organizing — VATS decortication), mediastinal masses (anterior 4 Ts — thymoma, teratoma, thyroid, terrible lymphoma), chest wall trauma (flail chest).

~3-5%

Minimally Invasive Surgery & Endoscopy

Laparoscopy (CO2 pneumoperitoneum — physiologic effects on cardiac, pulmonary, renal; Veress needle vs Hasson; subcutaneous emphysema), port placement, energy devices (monopolar, bipolar, ultrasonic, advanced bipolar), robotic surgery basics, SAGES safe cholecystectomy — critical view of safety (2 structures entering gallbladder, cleared hepatocystic triangle, lower 1/3 liver bed exposed), endoscopy (EGD, colonoscopy screening/surveillance, ERCP for choledocholithiasis/cholangitis, EUS for staging), advanced therapeutic endoscopy (EMR, ESD, esophageal/duodenal stenting).

~3%

Head & Neck

Neck masses (branchial cleft cyst level II, thyroglossal duct cyst midline moves with swallow, cystic hygroma), salivary gland (parotid — pleomorphic adenoma most common benign, Warthin bilateral, mucoepidermoid most common malignant; facial nerve preservation), oral cavity and oropharyngeal SCC (HPV-associated better prognosis), laryngeal cancer staging, neck dissection levels I-VI, parathyroid exploration.

~3%

Pediatric Surgery

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (Bochdalek posterolateral more common; delayed repair after stabilization), esophageal atresia/TEF (Gross type C most common), hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, correct hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis first), intussusception (air/contrast reduction first-line), malrotation and midgut volvulus (Ladd's procedure), Hirschsprung disease (rectal suction biopsy — absent ganglion cells), necrotizing enterocolitis (pneumatosis intestinalis), biliary atresia (Kasai portoenterostomy <8 wk), Wilms tumor, neuroblastoma, inguinal hernia (high ligation), undescended testis.

~2-3%

Ethics, Biostatistics & Outcomes

Informed consent and shared decision-making, disclosure of complications, end-of-life care and goals-of-care conversations, surrogate decision-making, WHO surgical safety checklist, never events, biostatistics (sensitivity/specificity, PPV/NPV, LR+/LR−, NNT, relative vs absolute risk reduction), study design (RCT, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, meta-analysis), NSQIP-based outcomes research, quality improvement and M&M conferences, root cause analysis.

~2%

Transplantation

Organ allocation (UNOS, MELD for liver — bilirubin, INR, creatinine, sodium; KDPI for kidney), brain death criteria and ancillary testing, DCD vs DBD, immunosuppression (induction — basiliximab/ATG; maintenance — calcineurin inhibitors tacrolimus/cyclosporine, antimetabolites mycophenolate/azathioprine, steroids, mTOR inhibitors sirolimus/everolimus), acute cellular vs antibody-mediated rejection, CMV and BK virus monitoring, post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease (EBV-driven).

How to Pass the ABS General Surgery Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABS (modified Angoff standard)
  • Exam length: 300 questions
  • Time limit: 1-day CBT (~8 hours including breaks)
  • Exam fee: ~$1,750 combined QE/CE application fee (ABS 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABS General Surgery Study Tips from Top Performers

1Hinchey classification for diverticulitis — high-yield: Stage I pericolic/mesenteric abscess (antibiotics ± percutaneous drainage); Stage II walled-off pelvic/retroperitoneal abscess (percutaneous drainage if >3-4 cm + antibiotics); Stage III purulent peritonitis (surgery — Hartmann or primary anastomosis with proximal diversion; laparoscopic lavage controversial); Stage IV feculent peritonitis (emergent surgery, typically Hartmann). Elective resection is now individualized — not automatic after 2 uncomplicated attacks per ASCRS 2020 guidelines.
2ATLS 10th edition MTP and damage control: Activate massive transfusion protocol for shock index >1, persistent hypotension, or ABC score ≥2. Transfuse plasma:platelets:RBC 1:1:1. Give TXA 1 g IV bolus + 1 g over 8 hr IF within 3 hours of injury (CRASH-2). Permissive hypotension (SBP 80-90, MAP 50-60) for uncontrolled hemorrhage until definitive control — except TBI where MAP goal ≥80. Damage-control laparotomy: abbreviated surgery, temporary abdominal closure, ICU for rewarming/coagulopathy correction, return to OR in 24-48 hr.
3Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle: (1) measure lactate, remeasure if initial >2; (2) blood cultures before antibiotics; (3) broad-spectrum antibiotics; (4) 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate ≥4 mmol/L; (5) vasopressors if hypotensive during or after fluid resuscitation to maintain MAP ≥65 — norepinephrine first-line, add vasopressin or epinephrine as needed. Consider hydrocortisone 200 mg/day in refractory septic shock. Source control as rapidly as feasible.
4NCCN breast cancer 2026 pearls: Screening mammography — individualized start age 40-50, annual. BRCA1/2 testing per NCCN criteria including family history thresholds. Lumpectomy + whole-breast RT equivalent to mastectomy for eligible patients (NSABP B-06). Z0011: cT1-T2 cN0 patients with 1-2 positive SLNs undergoing BCT + RT may avoid ALND. Neoadjuvant chemo standard for T2+ triple-negative (± pembrolizumab per KEYNOTE-522) and HER2+ (TCHP). Endocrine therapy: tamoxifen or OFS + AI premenopausal; AI preferred postmenopausal. CDK4/6 inhibitors (abemaciclib) for HR+ high-risk node-positive.
5Pancreatitis — revised Atlanta 2012: Diagnosis requires 2 of 3 — characteristic pain, lipase/amylase >3× ULN, imaging. Severity: mild (no organ failure or local complications), moderately severe (transient organ failure <48 hr or local complications), severe (persistent organ failure >48 hr). Types: interstitial edematous vs necrotizing. Local complications by timing: <4 weeks — acute peripancreatic fluid collection (interstitial), acute necrotic collection (necrotizing); ≥4 weeks — pseudocyst (interstitial), walled-off necrosis (necrotizing). Step-up approach for infected necrosis — percutaneous/endoscopic drainage before minimally invasive necrosectomy.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABS General Surgery Qualifying Examination?

The ABS General Surgery Qualifying Examination (QE) is the written, computer-based portion of initial board certification in general surgery administered by the American Board of Surgery. It is the first of two required examinations (Qualifying, then Certifying/Oral) for initial ABS certification. The QE tests breadth of knowledge across alimentary tract, abdomen, applied science and perioperative care, surgical critical care, trauma, vascular, breast/skin/soft tissue, endocrine, head and neck, thoracic, pediatric surgery basics, surgical oncology, transplantation, minimally invasive surgery and endoscopy, and ethics/biostatistics.

Who is eligible to take the ABS Qualifying Examination?

Candidates must satisfactorily complete an ACGME-accredited general surgery residency (5 clinical years) with program director attestation of clinical performance, professionalism, and ethics. A valid unrestricted medical license is required, along with submission of an operative experience report documenting the required ABS case minimums across alimentary tract, abdomen, vascular, trauma, endocrine, breast/skin/soft tissue, pediatric, and other defined index categories.

What is the format of the ABS QE?

The ABS Qualifying Exam is a 1-day computer-based examination administered at Pearson VUE test centers, comprising approximately 300 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over roughly 8 hours including breaks. Items commonly include clinical vignettes, imaging (CT, ultrasound, endoscopy), intraoperative photographs, and laboratory data. The exam is blueprinted to the ABS content outline and aligned with the SCORE curriculum.

How much does the 2026 ABS QE cost?

The 2026 ABS combined Qualifying/Certifying Examination application fee is approximately $1,750 — always verify the current schedule on the ABS website. This fee covers the application for both QE and CE. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABS schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Retakes require re-registration and fee payment within the allowed qualification window.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ABS Qualifying Examination is typically offered each year — historically in the late summer or fall. Applications generally open several months before the administration window with a strict submission deadline. Candidates schedule specific appointments with Pearson VUE after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABS examinations page.

How is the exam scored?

ABS uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail outcome depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports include domain-level feedback. Candidates must pass the QE before becoming eligible for the Certifying (Oral) Examination.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include alimentary tract (especially colorectal cancer NCCN, diverticulitis Hinchey, IBD, rectal cancer TME with neoadjuvant), biliary (Tokyo Guidelines cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis, gallbladder cancer), pancreatic disease (revised Atlanta, IPMN Fukuoka, Whipple), hernia, bariatric surgery (ASMBS), ATLS 10th edition trauma algorithms with AAST grading, MTP 1:1:1, Surviving Sepsis Campaign 2021 hour-1 bundle, ARDSnet ventilation, abdominal compartment syndrome, AAA/CEA/PAD thresholds, mesenteric ischemia, breast cancer NCCN (Z0011, BRCA, neoadjuvant), melanoma AJCC 8 with SLNB thresholds, thyroid/parathyroid/adrenal including MEN syndromes, SAGES critical view of safety, and NSQIP-based outcomes and biostatistics.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured 12-18 month plan layered on residency. Map to the ABS content outline and SCORE curriculum: start with alimentary tract, abdomen, and perioperative care; then trauma, critical care, and vascular; then breast/endocrine/oncology/thoracic; finish with MIS/endoscopy, pediatric, transplant, and ethics/biostats. Integrate textbooks (Sabiston, Greenfield, Cameron's Current Surgical Therapy), SCORE modules, ABSITE review materials, and high-volume MCQ practice. Complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams. Drill NCCN, ATLS 10th ed, Surviving Sepsis 2021, ASMBS, and AAST organ grading.