100+ Free ABS CGSO Practice Questions

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~75-85% first-time among CGSO fellowship graduates (ABS annual statistics) Pass Rate

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Question 1

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A 62-year-old woman undergoes lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) for a 2.1 cm cT1N0 estrogen receptor–positive, HER2-negative invasive ductal carcinoma. Two of three sentinel nodes contain macrometastases. She is planned for whole-breast radiation and endocrine therapy. What is the most appropriate axillary management?

Completion axillary lymph node dissection (ALND)

Axillary radiation instead of ALND (AMAROS arm)

No further axillary surgery — observation per Z0011/SENOMAC

Internal mammary node dissection

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABS CGSO Exam

~200

Total MCQ Items

ABS CGSO Certifying Examination

~7-8 hr

Total Exam Time

1-day computer-based test including breaks

~19%

GI Oncology Weight

Largest single domain on the ABS CGSO content outline

~$1,950

2026 Certifying Exam Fee

American Board of Surgery (verify current schedule)

2 yr

CGSO Fellowship

SSO/ACGME-accredited Complex General Surgical Oncology training

~75-85%

First-Time Pass Rate

ABS annual statistics (CGSO fellowship graduates)

The ABS CGSO Certifying Exam is a 1-day computer-based test from the American Board of Surgery with ~200 single-best-answer MCQs over ~7-8 hours at Pearson VUE. Content spans breast (~17%), GI (~19%), HPB (~14%), endocrine (~14%), melanoma/cutaneous (~10%), sarcoma (~8%), peritoneal surface/HIPEC (~4%), hereditary cancer (~4%), hepatic metastases (~3%), thoracic basics (~3%), clinical trials (~2%), immunotherapy (~1%), and palliative (~1%). Certifying Exam fee is ~$1,950; requires ABS General Surgery certification and completion of an SSO-accredited 2-year CGSO fellowship.

Sample ABS CGSO Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABS CGSO exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 62-year-old woman undergoes lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) for a 2.1 cm cT1N0 estrogen receptor–positive, HER2-negative invasive ductal carcinoma. Two of three sentinel nodes contain macrometastases. She is planned for whole-breast radiation and endocrine therapy. What is the most appropriate axillary management?

A.Completion axillary lymph node dissection (ALND)

B.Axillary radiation instead of ALND (AMAROS arm)

C.No further axillary surgery — observation per Z0011/SENOMAC

D.Internal mammary node dissection

Explanation: ACOSOG Z0011 established that in cT1-2 N0 patients with 1-2 positive SLNs undergoing breast-conserving surgery with whole-breast radiation, completion ALND is not required. SENOMAC extended this to mastectomy patients with up to 2 positive SLNs. AMAROS showed equivalent control with axillary radiation vs ALND in SLN-positive patients but is an alternative, not a default, when Z0011 criteria are met.

2According to AJCC 8th edition staging for breast cancer, which of the following most dramatically changes prognostic stage compared with anatomic stage?

A.Incorporation of tumor size only

B.Addition of lymphovascular invasion

C.Incorporation of grade, ER, PR, HER2, and Oncotype DX for ER+ HER2- tumors

D.Replacement of nodal staging with sentinel-only status

Explanation: AJCC 8 prognostic staging integrates biomarkers (ER, PR, HER2) and grade with anatomic T/N/M. For ER+/HER2-, node-negative tumors, a low Oncotype DX Recurrence Score (<11) downstages T1-T2 N0 disease to stage IA regardless of size up to T2. This biologic framework substantially reclassifies patients compared with anatomic-only staging.

3A 48-year-old BRCA1 germline mutation carrier with triple-negative 2.8 cm breast cancer completes neoadjuvant AC-T with residual 1.2 cm invasive disease and a positive SLN at lumpectomy. Per the OlympiA trial, what adjuvant systemic therapy is indicated in addition to radiation?

A.Adjuvant capecitabine alone

B.One year of olaparib 300 mg twice daily

C.Adjuvant pembrolizumab

D.Tamoxifen for 5 years

Explanation: OlympiA randomized germline BRCA1/2 high-risk HER2-negative breast cancer patients (TNBC with residual disease after neoadjuvant, or HR+ with CPS+EG ≥3) to 1 year of olaparib 300 mg BID vs placebo. Olaparib improved invasive disease-free survival and overall survival with sustained benefit at 6 years. Capecitabine (CREATE-X) is an option for residual TNBC but OlympiA specifically applies to gBRCA carriers.

4Which of the following is the strongest indication against nipple-sparing mastectomy (NSM)?

A.Tumor 3 cm away from the nipple-areolar complex

B.Pathologic involvement of the retroareolar ductal tissue on frozen section

C.Patient age over 60 years

D.Prior cosmetic breast augmentation

Explanation: Intraoperative frozen section of the subareolar (retroareolar) duct tissue is the gold standard during NSM. Positive involvement mandates excision of the nipple-areolar complex. Tumor-nipple distance >2 cm, tumors <5 cm, absence of skin/nipple involvement, and no clinical Paget's are supportive of NSM. Age and prior augmentation are not contraindications.

5A 55-year-old woman has biopsy-proven DCIS, grade 3, 1.2 cm, ER-positive. She undergoes lumpectomy with negative 2 mm margins. What is the most appropriate adjuvant management?

A.Observation alone

B.Whole-breast radiation and consideration of endocrine therapy

C.Mastectomy for grade 3 DCIS

D.Adjuvant chemotherapy with AC-T

Explanation: Standard of care for DCIS treated with breast-conserving surgery includes whole-breast radiation, which reduces ipsilateral breast recurrence by ~50%. Endocrine therapy (tamoxifen or AI) is considered for ER+ DCIS to reduce new primaries and ipsilateral recurrence. The SSO-ASTRO-ASCO consensus margin for DCIS is 2 mm. Chemotherapy has no role in DCIS.

6According to the SSO-ASTRO consensus statement, what is the appropriate margin for invasive breast cancer treated with breast-conserving surgery plus whole-breast radiation?

A.1 cm

B.5 mm

C.2 mm

D.No ink on tumor

Explanation: The SSO-ASTRO consensus (Moran et al., 2014) established 'no ink on tumor' as the adequate margin for invasive cancer with whole-breast radiation. Wider margins do not reduce recurrence. For pure DCIS, the consensus margin is 2 mm. These distinctions are high-yield on board examinations.

7A 40-year-old woman with triple-negative breast cancer cT2N1 receives neoadjuvant pembrolizumab plus chemotherapy per KEYNOTE-522. What is the correct adjuvant plan after surgery if she has a pathologic complete response (pCR)?

A.Discontinue pembrolizumab — no further therapy needed

B.Complete pembrolizumab to a total of 1 year (9 adjuvant cycles)

C.Switch to adjuvant capecitabine

D.Start olaparib regardless of BRCA status

Explanation: KEYNOTE-522 protocol combines neoadjuvant pembrolizumab with chemotherapy (carboplatin+paclitaxel followed by AC/EC) for 8 cycles, then 9 cycles of adjuvant pembrolizumab to complete ~1 year, regardless of pCR status. The regimen improved both pCR rate and event-free survival in stage II-III TNBC.

8Which patient is the best candidate for omission of SLNB under NCCN 2026 guidance (CHOOSING WISELY / SOUND-Society extrapolation)?

A.45-year-old with cT2N0 triple-negative cancer

B.72-year-old with cT1N0 grade 1, HR+/HER2- invasive ductal carcinoma planning lumpectomy, WBRT, and endocrine therapy

C.60-year-old with cT1N0 HER2+ planning mastectomy

D.55-year-old with multifocal DCIS planning mastectomy

Explanation: NCCN 2026 and CALGB 9343/PRIME II support omission of SLNB in selected older (>70, often >65) women with small (cT1), low-grade, HR+/HER2- tumors receiving BCS plus endocrine therapy, where SLN status rarely changes management. SOUND/INSEMA trials further support SLNB omission in low-risk postmenopausal women. The other options have higher risk disease requiring nodal staging.

9A 58-year-old woman with HR+/HER2- node-positive early breast cancer completes 5 years of aromatase inhibitor. Which tool best predicts benefit from extending endocrine therapy to 10 years?

A.Oncotype DX Recurrence Score

B.MammaPrint

C.Breast Cancer Index (BCI)

D.Ki-67 proliferation index

Explanation: Breast Cancer Index (BCI) is validated to predict benefit from extended endocrine therapy (5 to 10 years). A high BCI-H/I score predicts benefit from extended AI. Oncotype DX and MammaPrint predict chemotherapy benefit and early-recurrence risk. Ki-67 is a proliferation marker but not validated for extended-endocrine benefit.

10A 38-year-old patient with HER2+ metastatic breast cancer progresses after trastuzumab/pertuzumab and T-DM1. Which second-line ADC is preferred based on the DESTINY-Breast03 trial?

A.Sacituzumab govitecan

B.Trastuzumab deruxtecan (T-DXd)

C.Eribulin

D.Lapatinib plus capecitabine

Explanation: DESTINY-Breast03 compared trastuzumab deruxtecan (T-DXd) vs T-DM1 in previously treated HER2+ metastatic breast cancer and showed a dramatic PFS and OS improvement, establishing T-DXd as preferred second-line therapy. Key toxicity is interstitial lung disease/pneumonitis requiring monitoring. Sacituzumab govitecan targets Trop-2 and is used in TNBC and HR+/HER2- metastatic disease.

About the ABS CGSO Exam

The ABS Complex General Surgical Oncology (CGSO) Certifying Examination validates subspecialty knowledge for independent practice as a surgical oncologist. Content spans breast oncology (Z0011/SENOMAC/AMAROS, KEYNOTE-522, OlympiA, monarchE/NATALEE, AJCC 8 prognostic staging), GI oncology (colorectal — PROSPECT, TNT, watch-and-wait, KEYNOTE-177, dostarlimab MSI-H rectal; gastric — FLOT, CheckMate 649; anal; GIST — KIT exons), HPB (pancreas — PREOPANC, PRODIGE 24, NAPOLI-3; cholangiocarcinoma — TOPAZ-1, pemigatinib, ivosidenib; gallbladder — incidental re-resection; HCC — Milan, IMbrave150), endocrine (ATA thyroid, MEN1/2A/2B, adrenocortical, NETs — NETTER-2 PRRT), melanoma (MSLT-II, SWOG S1801, CheckMate 238, RELATIVITY-047), sarcoma (STRASS, NCIC SR2, GIST), CRLM (TransMet), peritoneal surface (PRODIGE 7 HIPEC), hereditary cancer (BRCA, Lynch, FAP, CDH1, Li-Fraumeni, MEN), and immunotherapy/targeted therapy. Requires ABS General Surgery certification and completion of an SSO-accredited CGSO fellowship (2 years).

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day CBT (~7-8 hours including breaks)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by the ABS (modified Angoff standard)

Exam Fee

~$1,950 Certifying Examination fee (ABS 2026 — verify current schedule) (American Board of Surgery (ABS) / Pearson VUE)

ABS CGSO Exam Content Outline

~19%

Gastrointestinal Oncology (Colorectal & Gastric)

Colon cancer (R0, ≥12 nodes, CME/CVL, IDEA 3 vs 6 months FOLFOX for stage III), rectal cancer (TME, PROSPECT selective neoadjuvant, TNT PRODIGE 23/RAPIDO, watch-and-wait after cCR, dostarlimab for MSI-H — Cercek), KEYNOTE-177 pembrolizumab first-line MSI-H metastatic CRC, BRAF V600E (encorafenib + cetuximab BEACON), HER2+ CRC (trastuzumab + tucatinib), anal SCC (Nigro chemoRT, APR for salvage), appendiceal (LAMN, PMP), gastric (D2 lymphadenectomy, perioperative FLOT, CheckMate 649 nivolumab + chemo for HER2- PD-L1 CPS ≥5, KEYNOTE-811 for HER2+ metastatic gastric), GIST (KIT exon 11/9, PDGFRA D842V — avapritinib; 3 years adjuvant imatinib for high-risk).

~17%

Breast Oncology

SSO-ASTRO-ASCO margins (no ink on tumor invasive; 2 mm DCIS), BCT vs mastectomy, nipple-sparing mastectomy (retroareolar frozen), axillary management (SLNB, ACOSOG Z0011, AMAROS, SENOMAC — omission of ALND for ≤2 positive SLNs in mastectomy), neoadjuvant pembrolizumab + chemo KEYNOTE-522 TNBC stage II-III with 9 adjuvant cycles, HER2+ KATHERINE adjuvant T-DM1 for non-pCR, KEYNOTE-811 pembrolizumab + trastuzumab + chemo metastatic HER2+, HR+ CDK4/6 (monarchE abemaciclib, NATALEE ribociclib adjuvant), OlympiA adjuvant olaparib for gBRCA high-risk, AJCC 8 prognostic staging with biomarkers and Oncotype DX, BRCA1/2/PALB2 risk-reducing mastectomy.

~14%

Hepatopancreatobiliary Oncology

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma (NCCN 2026 resectable/borderline/LA criteria — SMA/celiac/CHA/SMV-PV), neoadjuvant FOLFIRINOX (PREOPANC, PREOPANC-2, ALLIANCE A021806), adjuvant modified FOLFIRINOX (PRODIGE 24), NAPOLI-3 NALIRIFOX first-line metastatic, Whipple vs distal pancreatectomy, IPMN (Fukuoka/Kyoto), cholangiocarcinoma (iCCA/perihilar/distal; Bismuth-Corlette; TOPAZ-1 durvalumab + gem/cis; pemigatinib FGFR2, ivosidenib IDH1), incidental gallbladder cancer (re-resection segments IVb/V and portal LND for T1b+), HCC (Milan/UCSF, BCLC, atezolizumab + bevacizumab IMbrave150, Y-90 radioembolization, MWA/RFA).

~14%

Endocrine Oncology

Differentiated thyroid cancer (lobectomy acceptable for low-risk 1-4 cm per ATA; total thyroidectomy with RAI for high-risk; central/lateral neck dissection for clinically positive disease; NTRK/RET fusions — larotrectinib/selpercatinib), medullary thyroid (RET germline MEN2A/2B, prophylactic thyroidectomy timing, calcitonin/CEA surveillance, selpercatinib/pralsetinib), anaplastic (BRAF V600E dabrafenib + trametinib neoadjuvant), parathyroid (MEN1/CDC73, focused vs 4-gland, intraoperative PTH Miami criterion), adrenocortical carcinoma (en bloc R0, mitotane, FIRM-ACT), pheo/para (SDH germline, alpha then beta blockade), NETs (SSA octreotide/lanreotide CLARINET, PRRT lutetium-177 dotatate NETTER-2, everolimus, surgical debulking).

~10%

Melanoma & Cutaneous Oncology

Melanoma AJCC 8, WLE margins (0.5 cm in situ, 1 cm ≤1 mm, 1-2 cm 1-2 mm, 2 cm >2 mm), SLNB ≥0.8 mm or high-risk thin, MSLT-II/DeCOG-SLT (completion LND replaced by surveillance ultrasound), SWOG S1801 neoadjuvant pembrolizumab (superior EFS), CheckMate 238 adjuvant nivolumab for resected IIIB/C/D, COMBI-AD adjuvant dabrafenib + trametinib for BRAF V600E/K, RELATIVITY-047 relatlimab + nivolumab metastatic, Merkel cell (SLNB, avelumab), cutaneous SCC (Brigham-Women's, cemiplimab), DFSP (Mohs/wide, imatinib COL1A1-PDGFB).

~8%

Sarcoma (Soft Tissue & Retroperitoneal)

Extremity STS (core needle biopsy along future incision, MRI, R0 limb-sparing + RT, NCIC SR2 preop vs postop trade-offs), neoadjuvant histology-tailored chemo, retroperitoneal sarcoma (STRASS — preop RT did NOT improve abdominal RFS overall; liposarcoma subset signal; compartmental resection; TARPSWG consensus), GIST (imatinib, KIT exons, avapritinib for PDGFRA D842V; sunitinib/regorafenib/ripretinib), desmoid (active surveillance first, sorafenib/nirogacestat), pediatric sarcomas overview.

~4%

Peritoneal Surface Malignancy & HIPEC

PMP from appendiceal mucinous neoplasms (LAMN, HAMN), CRS + HIPEC mitomycin C for appendiceal, PRODIGE 7 (HIPEC with oxaliplatin did NOT improve OS in colorectal peritoneal disease), PROPHYLOCHIP/COLOPEC (no prophylactic HIPEC benefit), PCI and completeness of cytoreduction (CC-0/1), peritoneal mesothelioma, ovarian and gastric peritoneal disease.

~4%

Hereditary Cancer Syndromes

BRCA1/2 (breast/ovarian/pancreatic/prostate; risk-reducing mastectomy; RRSO 35-40 BRCA1, 40-45 BRCA2; OlympiA adjuvant olaparib), Lynch/HNPCC (tumor IHC, MSI, universal screening; extended colectomy; hysterectomy/BSO; pembrolizumab MSI-H), FAP/APC (proctocolectomy IPAA vs colectomy IRA; duodenal Spigelman; desmoids), Li-Fraumeni (TP53 — avoid radiation), CDH1 (prophylactic total gastrectomy 20-30 years), MEN1 (parathyroid/pituitary/panNET), MEN2A/2B (RET — prophylactic thyroidectomy), PALB2, PTEN Cowden, STK11 Peutz-Jeghers.

~3%

Hepatic Metastases & CRLM

Colorectal liver metastases (synchronous vs metachronous, classic vs reverse approach), FOLFOX/FOLFIRI ± biologics (anti-EGFR for RAS/BRAF WT left-sided, bevacizumab), ablation for small lesions, two-stage hepatectomy and ALPPS, portal vein embolization, TransMet trial (liver transplant improves OS in highly selected unresectable CRLM), neuroendocrine liver metastases debulking.

~3%

Thoracic Oncology (Surgical Oncology Scope)

Esophageal cancer (CROSS neoadjuvant chemoRT, FLOT adenocarcinoma, CheckMate 577 adjuvant nivolumab for non-pCR, Ivor-Lewis/McKeown MIE, endoscopic resection T1a), lung cancer basics for surgical oncologists (CheckMate 816 neoadjuvant nivolumab + chemo, adjuvant osimertinib ADAURA EGFR+, lobectomy vs sublobar JCOG0802/CALGB 140503), thymoma (Masaoka-Koga).

~2%

Clinical Trials, Biostatistics & Ethics

Phase I/II/III design, RECIST 1.1 vs iRECIST for immunotherapy, intention-to-treat, stratification, surrogate endpoints (EFS, DFS, pCR, MPR, OS), hazard ratio and 95% CI, Kaplan-Meier, informed consent/assent, IRB, equipoise, minority enrollment, publication ethics.

~1%

Immunotherapy & Targeted Therapy

Checkpoint inhibitors (anti-PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4/LAG-3), MSI-H/dMMR pan-tumor approvals, TMB-high, NTRK fusion (larotrectinib/entrectinib), RET fusion (selpercatinib), BRAF V600E combinations, immune-related adverse events (colitis, pneumonitis, hepatitis, hypophysitis, myocarditis) — steroids/infliximab/vedolizumab.

~1%

Palliative & Supportive Oncologic Surgery

Malignant bowel obstruction, venting gastrostomy, biliary drainage (PTC vs ERCP stent), symptom-directed surgery, goals-of-care communication, palliative chemotherapy/radiation, cancer pain, hospice eligibility.

How to Pass the ABS CGSO Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by the ABS (modified Angoff standard)
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: 1-day CBT (~7-8 hours including breaks)
Exam fee: ~$1,950 Certifying Examination fee (ABS 2026 — verify current schedule)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABS CGSO Study Tips from Top Performers

1Axillary management after positive SLNB — memorize the three big trials: ACOSOG Z0011 (cT1-2 N0 with 1-2 positive SLNs and BCT + whole-breast RT — no ALND needed); AMAROS (equivalent recurrence with axillary RT vs ALND but more lymphedema with ALND); SENOMAC (extended Z0011 to mastectomy — ≤2 positive SLNs without ALND is safe). Most women with 1-2 positive SLNs no longer need completion ALND.

2KEYNOTE-522 TNBC regimen: neoadjuvant pembrolizumab + carboplatin/paclitaxel for 4 cycles, then pembrolizumab + AC/EC for 4 cycles, followed by surgery, then 9 cycles of adjuvant pembrolizumab for a total of ~1 year — regardless of pCR status. Improved pCR and EFS vs chemo alone in stage II-III TNBC.

3Rectal cancer has moved: PROSPECT showed selective neoadjuvant FOLFOX (no pelvic RT) non-inferior for many intermediate-risk cT2-3 N0-1 patients. TNT (PRODIGE 23, RAPIDO) improves DFS and increases cCR. Watch-and-wait is durable for true cCR. The MSI-H/dMMR subset (~5-10%) responds dramatically to neoadjuvant PD-1 blockade — dostarlimab (Cercek et al., MSKCC) achieved 100% cCR in early cohorts and is now an option for locally advanced MSI-H rectal cancer.

4Pancreatic adenocarcinoma pearls: resectable/borderline/locally advanced are defined by vascular involvement (celiac, CHA, SMA, SMV-PV) per NCCN 2026. Neoadjuvant FOLFIRINOX (or gem/nab-paclitaxel) is increasingly standard for borderline/LA (PREOPANC, PREOPANC-2, ALLIANCE A021806). Adjuvant modified FOLFIRINOX (PRODIGE 24) is superior to gemcitabine. First-line metastatic: NAPOLI-3 NALIRIFOX is a new standard-of-care option.

5STRASS trial is the single most important RPS trial — in the overall retroperitoneal sarcoma population, preoperative radiotherapy did NOT improve abdominal recurrence-free survival compared with surgery alone. A liposarcoma subgroup signal exists and is debated. Current TARPSWG consensus: routine preop RT is NOT recommended; consider only in select liposarcomas in multidisciplinary discussion. Compartmental (extended) resection remains the cornerstone. Contrast this with extremity STS where neoadjuvant RT is well-established (NCIC SR2).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABS Complex General Surgical Oncology Certifying Examination?

The ABS CGSO Certifying Examination is administered by the American Board of Surgery and is the subspecialty certifying exam for surgeons who have completed an SSO-accredited Complex General Surgical Oncology fellowship. It validates breadth of knowledge across breast, gastrointestinal, hepatopancreatobiliary, endocrine, melanoma/cutaneous, sarcoma, peritoneal surface, hereditary cancer, and systemic therapy relevant to the practicing surgical oncologist.

Who is eligible to take the CGSO Certifying Exam?

Candidates must hold ABS certification in General Surgery in good standing and complete an ACGME/SSO-accredited Complex General Surgical Oncology fellowship (2 years). A valid unrestricted medical license is required, and the fellowship program director must attest to satisfactory performance and ethics. Candidates submit an application with documented case logs across disease sites per the ABS schedule.

What is the format of the ABS CGSO exam?

The CGSO Certifying Exam is a 1-day computer-based examination administered at Pearson VUE test centers, comprising approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions over roughly 7-8 hours including breaks. Items commonly include clinical photographs, imaging (CT, MRI, PET), pathology, and multidisciplinary case vignettes. The exam is blueprinted to the ABS/SSO CGSO content outline.

How much does the 2026 CGSO exam cost?

The 2026 ABS CGSO Certifying Examination fee is approximately $1,950 — always verify the current schedule on the ABS website. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABS schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Retakes require re-registration and full fee payment within the allowed qualification window following fellowship completion.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ABS CGSO Certifying Examination is typically offered once annually. Applications generally open in the spring with a submission deadline several months before the test, and candidates schedule specific appointments with Pearson VUE after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABS CGSO certification page.

How is the exam scored?

The ABS uses criterion-referenced scaled scoring with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score, not on other candidates. Score reports include domain-level feedback. Candidates who do not pass may retake the examination within the defined eligibility window.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include axillary management after Z0011/SENOMAC/AMAROS, KEYNOTE-522 neoadjuvant TNBC, OlympiA adjuvant olaparib, monarchE/NATALEE CDK4/6 adjuvant, rectal cancer watch-and-wait after TNT and dostarlimab for MSI-H, KEYNOTE-177 first-line MSI-H metastatic CRC, FLOT and CheckMate 649 for gastric, PREOPANC/NAPOLI-3 pancreatic, incidental gallbladder re-resection, Milan/IMbrave150 HCC, ATA thyroid and MEN prophylactic timing, MSLT-II and SWOG S1801 melanoma, STRASS retroperitoneal sarcoma, GIST KIT exons, TransMet CRLM transplant, PRODIGE 7 HIPEC, and BRCA/Lynch/FAP/CDH1 surgical implications.

How should I study for this exam?

Use a structured plan layered on the 2-year fellowship. Map to the ABS CGSO content outline: start with breast and melanoma/cutaneous, then GI and HPB, followed by endocrine, sarcoma, and hereditary syndromes. Integrate NCCN 2026 guidelines, the SSO Self-Assessment Program (SAP), Cameron's Current Surgical Therapy, Cancer of the Skin (Rigel), and high-volume MCQ practice. Attend disease-site multidisciplinary tumor boards. Complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams. Drill landmark trials, biomarker algorithms, and AJCC 8 staging.