100+ Free ABPN Epilepsy Practice Questions

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Question 1

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According to the ILAE 2017 seizure classification, how is a seizure with focal onset during which the patient retains awareness throughout but has rhythmic jerking of the right arm best described?

Generalized motor seizure

Simple partial motor seizure

Focal impaired awareness motor seizure

Focal aware motor seizure

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPN Epilepsy Exam

~200

Total MCQ Items

ABPN Epilepsy Subspecialty Examination

1 day

Total Exam Time

Computer-based test at Pearson VUE

~15%

EEG Interpretation Weight

Largest single domain on 2026 ABPN Epilepsy content outline

$2,200

2026 Subspecialty Fee

ABPN initial certification

1 yr

Required Fellowship

ACGME-accredited Epilepsy fellowship

Pearson VUE

Test Delivery

Computer-based testing at authorized centers

The ABPN Epilepsy Subspecialty exam is a 1-day computer-based test administered at Pearson VUE containing ~200 single-best-answer MCQs. The 2026 content outline emphasizes EEG interpretation (~15%), antiseizure medications (~15%), classification (~10%), common syndromes (~10%), status epilepticus (~8%), etiologies/imaging (~8%), presurgical evaluation (~8%), epilepsy surgery (~8%), comorbidities/SUDEP (~7%), neuromodulation/diet (~6%), and PNES/pregnancy/genetics (~5%). Initial subspecialty fee is ~$2,200; requires ABPN primary certification plus 1-year ACGME Epilepsy fellowship.

Sample ABPN Epilepsy Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPN Epilepsy exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1According to the ILAE 2017 seizure classification, how is a seizure with focal onset during which the patient retains awareness throughout but has rhythmic jerking of the right arm best described?

A.Generalized motor seizure

B.Simple partial motor seizure

C.Focal impaired awareness motor seizure

D.Focal aware motor seizure

Explanation: The ILAE 2017 classification replaced 'simple partial' with 'focal aware' and 'complex partial' with 'focal impaired awareness.' Seizures are classified by onset (focal, generalized, unknown), awareness (for focal seizures: aware vs impaired awareness), and motor vs non-motor features. Retained awareness with focal motor activity = focal aware motor seizure.

2Which of the following seizure types was newly added as a named generalized seizure type in the ILAE 2017 operational classification?

A.Myoclonic

B.Tonic-clonic

C.Atonic

D.Myoclonic-tonic-clonic

Explanation: The ILAE 2017 classification added myoclonic-tonic-clonic and myoclonic-atonic as newly named generalized onset seizure types, along with eyelid myoclonia as a formal absence subtype. These additions improved recognition of phenotypes seen in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, Jeavons syndrome, and Doose syndrome.

3A 7-year-old has brief (5-10 second) staring episodes with eyelid fluttering occurring 20-50 times per day. EEG shows 3 Hz generalized spike-and-wave induced by hyperventilation. Which ILAE epilepsy syndrome is most likely?

A.Childhood absence epilepsy (CAE)

B.Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

C.Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

D.Benign rolandic epilepsy (BECTS)

Explanation: Childhood absence epilepsy (CAE) onset is 4-10 years with frequent brief typical absence seizures, often with eye fluttering or automatisms. EEG shows classic 3 Hz generalized spike-and-wave discharges activated by hyperventilation. Per the CAEC trial, ethosuximide is first-line (superior to valproate in terms of attentional adverse effects; equivalent efficacy to valproate, both superior to lamotrigine).

4Per the ILAE 2022 position paper, which category best classifies Dravet syndrome?

A.Epilepsy syndrome with onset in infancy

B.Epilepsy syndrome of neonatal onset

C.Epilepsy syndrome of adolescence-adult onset

D.Epilepsy syndrome with variable age at onset

Explanation: The ILAE 2022 position papers organize epilepsy syndromes by typical age at onset: neonatal, infancy, childhood, adolescence-adult, and variable. Dravet syndrome classically presents in infancy (first year of life) with prolonged febrile seizures in a previously normal infant and is classified as an epilepsy syndrome with onset in infancy.

5An 8-year-old has nocturnal hemifacial twitching with drooling and speech arrest; EEG reveals centrotemporal spikes that activate dramatically in sleep. The child is developmentally normal. Which epilepsy syndrome is most likely?

A.Landau-Kleffner syndrome

B.Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

C.Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

D.Benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS)

Explanation: Benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS, now 'self-limited epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes' in ILAE 2022) presents ages 3-13 with nocturnal focal motor seizures involving oropharyngeal/hemifacial muscles, drooling, and speech arrest. EEG shows high-amplitude centrotemporal spikes that markedly increase in sleep. Prognosis is excellent with remission by adolescence. Treatment is often NOT required if infrequent.

6A 15-year-old develops early morning myoclonic jerks of the arms, occasional generalized tonic-clonic seizures upon awakening, and photic sensitivity on EEG. Which diagnosis fits best?

A.Juvenile absence epilepsy

B.Childhood absence epilepsy

C.Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME)

D.Progressive myoclonic epilepsy

Explanation: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) presents in adolescence with morning myoclonic jerks, GTC seizures (often on awakening), and less commonly absence seizures. EEG shows 4-6 Hz generalized polyspike-and-wave with photoparoxysmal response. Valproate has best efficacy but should be avoided in women of childbearing potential — use lamotrigine or levetiracetam instead. Lamotrigine can paradoxically worsen myoclonus in some patients.

7A 4-year-old has multiple daily tonic seizures in sleep, atypical absences, drop attacks, and cognitive impairment. EEG shows diffuse slow spike-and-wave at <2.5 Hz and generalized paroxysmal fast activity in sleep. Which syndrome is this?

A.Dravet syndrome

B.Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

C.West syndrome

D.Doose syndrome

Explanation: Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS) is defined by the triad of multiple seizure types (especially tonic in sleep, atypical absences, atonic drop attacks), EEG showing <2.5 Hz slow spike-and-wave plus generalized paroxysmal fast activity in sleep, and intellectual disability. First-line antiseizure treatments include valproate, lamotrigine, rufinamide (drop attacks), clobazam, and cannabidiol. Corpus callosotomy palliates drop attacks.

8A 6-month-old infant presents with clusters of flexor spasms occurring on awakening and developmental regression. EEG shows hypsarrhythmia. Which syndrome is this and what is first-line therapy?

A.West syndrome — ACTH or vigabatrin (vigabatrin especially if tuberous sclerosis)

B.Dravet syndrome — stiripentol

C.Lennox-Gastaut syndrome — valproate

D.Ohtahara syndrome — phenobarbital

Explanation: West syndrome is the triad of infantile spasms (flexor/extensor/mixed in clusters), hypsarrhythmia on EEG (high-amplitude chaotic slowing with multifocal spikes), and developmental regression/plateau. First-line therapy per AAN/CNS 2012 is ACTH (or high-dose oral prednisolone) or vigabatrin. Vigabatrin is especially effective and preferred in tuberous sclerosis complex. Early treatment of spasms improves developmental outcomes.

9A previously healthy 10-month-old has a 30-minute hemiclonic seizure triggered by fever. Over the next 2 years seizures become multifocal and pharmacoresistant; development regresses. SCN1A loss-of-function mutation is confirmed. Which antiseizure medication should be AVOIDED?

A.Valproate

B.Carbamazepine

C.Clobazam

D.Stiripentol

Explanation: Dravet syndrome (severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy) is caused by SCN1A loss-of-function mutations that reduce inhibitory interneuron sodium-channel function. Sodium-channel blockers (carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine) WORSEN seizures by further impairing interneuron function — AVOID. First-line: valproate + clobazam. Add-on: stiripentol, cannabidiol (Epidiolex), fenfluramine (FDA 2020).

10The ILAE etiology framework classifies epilepsies into how many etiology categories (which may coexist)?

A.Six — structural, genetic, infectious, metabolic, immune, unknown

B.Three — idiopathic, symptomatic, cryptogenic

C.Four — structural, genetic, symptomatic, unknown

D.Five — structural, genetic, metabolic, infectious, unknown

Explanation: The ILAE 2017 framework recognizes SIX etiology categories: structural, genetic, infectious, metabolic, immune, and unknown. Multiple etiologies may coexist (e.g., TSC is both genetic and structural). The older 'idiopathic/symptomatic/cryptogenic' terminology has been retired.

About the ABPN Epilepsy Exam

The ABPN Epilepsy Subspecialty Certification Examination is the board exam for neurologists and child neurologists who have completed a 1-year ACGME-accredited Epilepsy fellowship. The computer-based test contains approximately 200 single-best-answer MCQs covering ILAE 2017 seizure classification, ILAE 2022 epilepsy syndromes by age group, EEG interpretation (normal variants, interictal epileptiform discharges, ACNS 2021 rhythmic/periodic nomenclature), common syndromes (CAE, JAE, JME, TLE, BECTS, LGS, West, Dravet, Rasmussen), status epilepticus per ESETT, antiseizure medications (mechanisms, pregnancy/teratogenicity per NAPR, HLA-B*1502 and SJS, SUDEP, DRESS), neuroimaging (mesial temporal sclerosis, FCD, TSC), presurgical evaluation (video-EEG, PET, SPECT, MEG, Wada, sEEG), epilepsy surgery (temporal lobectomy, hemispherectomy, callosotomy, LITT), neuromodulation (VNS, RNS, ANT-DBS), ketogenic diet, comorbidities, PNES, pregnancy counseling, genetic epilepsies, and SUDEP.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day computer-based exam

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPN (modified Angoff)

Exam Fee

~$2,200 initial subspecialty certification fee (ABPN 2026) (American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology (ABPN) / Pearson VUE)

ABPN Epilepsy Exam Content Outline

~15%

EEG Interpretation

Normal adult/pediatric EEG, 10-20 system, bipolar vs referential montages, filters, normal variants (wicket, BSSS, BETS, POSTs, lambda, psychomotor variant, 14&6). Interictal epileptiform discharges — spikes <70 ms, sharp waves 70-200 ms, polyspikes, spike-wave complexes. Focal (temporal T1/T3 anterior, frontal, occipital), generalized (3 Hz spike-wave in CAE, 4-6 Hz polyspike-wave in JME, <2.5 Hz slow spike-wave in LGS). ACNS 2021 standardized critical care EEG nomenclature — LPDs, GPDs, LRDA, GRDA, BIRDs. Video-EEG long-term monitoring.

~15%

Antiseizure Medications

Mechanism classes — Na+ channel (phenytoin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, lamotrigine, lacosamide, cenobamate), GABA-A (benzodiazepines, barbiturates), SV2A (levetiracetam, brivaracetam), Ca2+ T-type (ethosuximide), α2δ (gabapentin, pregabalin), AMPA (perampanel). Enzyme inducers (carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, topiramate >200 mg/d) vs inhibitors (valproate). Pregnancy — lamotrigine and levetiracetam preferred per NAPR; AVOID valproate (NTD, lower IQ), topiramate (cleft). Adverse effects — SJS (lamotrigine slow titration; carbamazepine with HLA-B*1502 in Asians), DRESS (cenobamate), hyponatremia (carbamazepine/oxcarbazepine), irritability (levetiracetam — pyridoxine), word-finding/kidney stones (topiramate), purple glove (phenytoin infiltration — fosphenytoin preferred).

~10%

Seizure & Epilepsy Classification

ILAE 2017 seizure classification — focal onset (aware vs impaired awareness; motor vs non-motor features), generalized onset (tonic-clonic, absence typical/atypical/myoclonic/eyelid myoclonia, myoclonic, atonic, tonic, clonic, myoclonic-tonic-clonic), unknown onset. Epilepsy types — focal, generalized, combined, unknown. ILAE 2022 position paper on epilepsy syndromes by age group — neonatal, infancy, childhood, adolescence-adult, variable. Etiology — structural, genetic, infectious, metabolic, immune, unknown.

~10%

Common Epilepsy Syndromes

Childhood absence epilepsy — 3 Hz spike-wave activated by hyperventilation; ethosuximide first-line per CAEC trial (fewer attentional AEs than valproate). JAE. JME — myoclonic jerks + GTC, photosensitivity, valproate best efficacy but AVOID in women of childbearing potential (use lamotrigine or levetiracetam). Temporal lobe epilepsy — mesial temporal sclerosis, déjà vu aura, automatisms, excellent surgical candidates (Wiebe 2001). Frontal lobe — hypermotor, nocturnal, brief. BECTS — oropharyngeal/hemifacial, centrotemporal spikes activated in sleep, often no Rx. Panayiotopoulos (autonomic) vs Gastaut (visual). LGS — multiple seizure types, slow spike-wave, tonic in sleep, cognitive impairment (cannabidiol, rufinamide, clobazam). West — infantile spasms + hypsarrhythmia + developmental regression (ACTH/vigabatrin, esp for TS). Dravet — SCN1A, febrile onset, refractory (stiripentol, cannabidiol, fenfluramine — AVOID Na-channel blockers).

~8%

Status Epilepticus

Convulsive SE operational definition >5 min. First-line — IV lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg (max 4 mg per dose) or IM midazolam 10 mg if no IV access (RAMPART trial). Second-line per ESETT — fosphenytoin 20 PE/kg, levetiracetam 60 mg/kg, or valproate 40 mg/kg, all equivalent ~50% efficacy. Third-line — continuous infusion midazolam, propofol, pentobarbital, or ketamine with continuous EEG targeting burst suppression. Non-convulsive SE requires EEG diagnosis (Salzburg criteria). Super-refractory SE >24h despite anesthesia. NORSE/FIRES — new-onset refractory SE, often immune-mediated (consider immunomodulation, ketogenic diet).

~8%

Etiologies & Neuroimaging

MRI epilepsy protocol — 3T, thin-slice coronal oblique through hippocampi, FLAIR, high-resolution T2. Mesial temporal sclerosis — hippocampal atrophy + FLAIR hyperintensity + loss of internal architecture. Focal cortical dysplasia — FCD type I (isolated architectural), II (dysmorphic neurons ± balloon cells — IIb), III (associated with principal lesion). Tuberous sclerosis — cortical tubers, SEGA (mTOR everolimus). Malformations of cortical development — lissencephaly, polymicrogyria, hemimegalencephaly, schizencephaly, heterotopia. Sturge-Weber (leptomeningeal angioma). Stroke, trauma, tumor (DNET, ganglioglioma). Autoimmune — anti-LGI1 faciobrachial dystonic seizures, anti-NMDAR encephalitis.

~8%

Presurgical Evaluation

Seizure semiology localization — temporal (aura, automatisms, dystonic posturing), frontal (hypermotor, nocturnal), parietal (sensory), occipital (visual). Phase I non-invasive — long-term video-EEG, high-resolution MRI, FDG-PET (interictal hypometabolism), ictal SPECT with SISCOM subtraction, magnetoencephalography (MEG for interictal source localization), fMRI (language lateralization), Wada test (memory and language), neuropsychological testing. Phase II invasive monitoring — stereoelectroencephalography (sEEG depth electrodes, now preferred), subdural grids/strips, when non-invasive data are discordant or non-lesional.

~8%

Epilepsy Surgery

Anterior temporal lobectomy with amygdalohippocampectomy — gold standard for mesial TLE, ~60-70% seizure freedom at 1 year (Wiebe 2001 RCT, Engel 2012 ERSET). Selective amygdalohippocampectomy. Extratemporal lesionectomy. Hemispherectomy/hemispherotomy — Rasmussen encephalitis, Sturge-Weber, infantile hemiplegia. Corpus callosotomy — palliative for drop attacks in LGS. Multiple subpial transections (eloquent cortex). MRI-guided laser interstitial thermal therapy (LITT) — minimally invasive alternative for MTS, hypothalamic hamartoma, periventricular nodular heterotopia. Stereotactic radiosurgery.

~7%

Comorbidities & SUDEP

Depression ~30% (SSRIs generally safe; avoid bupropion, clozapine, chlorpromazine — lower seizure threshold), anxiety, psychosis (postictal, interictal, forced normalization), suicide risk 3x elevated. Cognitive effects — topiramate, zonisamide, phenobarbital worst; levetiracetam (irritability), lamotrigine cognitively friendly. Memory decline risk after dominant temporal lobectomy. ADHD + epilepsy — stimulants generally OK. Bone health with enzyme-inducing ASMs (vitamin D/Ca supplementation). SUDEP — incidence ~1/1000 adult epilepsy/year, risk factors per AAN/AES 2017: generalized convulsive seizures, high frequency, ASM non-adherence, nocturnal unwitnessed seizures. Counsel all patients.

~6%

Neuromodulation & Ketogenic Diet

Vagus nerve stimulation (VNS — Cyberonics 1997 FDA-approved for adults with refractory focal epilepsy; ~50% seizure reduction in ~50% of patients after 1-2 years; adverse effects hoarseness, cough). Responsive neurostimulation (RNS — NeuroPace 2013 FDA; closed-loop, detects and aborts seizures; suitable when seizures arise from 1-2 foci in eloquent cortex). Deep brain stimulation of anterior nucleus of thalamus (ANT-DBS — SANTE trial 2010, FDA 2018; useful for bilateral or non-localizable focal). Centromedian DBS investigational for generalized. Ketogenic diet — first-line for infantile spasms (esp GLUT1 deficiency), Dravet, LGS; variants include modified Atkins, low glycemic index treatment, MCT-based.

~5%

PNES, Pregnancy & Genetics

Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES/functional seizures) — long duration, asynchronous limb movements, side-to-side head shaking, pelvic thrust, eyes forced closed, post-ictal weeping, normal ictal EEG with preserved alpha. Video-EEG is gold standard. Treatment — CBT (Goldstein LaFrance 2020). Pregnancy — preconception counseling, folate 1-4 mg/d, lamotrigine levels can drop 50%+ (monitor free levels), enzyme-inducing ASMs reduce OCP efficacy (prefer IUD/implant). North American AED Pregnancy Registry (NAPR) — lamotrigine/levetiracetam lowest teratogenicity; valproate highest (NTD, cognitive). Genetic testing in refractory infancy/childhood — SCN1A (Dravet), SCN2A, KCNQ2 (neonatal), STXBP1, CDKL5, KCNT1, PCDH19, CHD2. Precision therapy — KCNT1 (quinidine), KCNQ2 (sodium channel blockers), SCN8A (phenytoin).

How to Pass the ABPN Epilepsy Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPN (modified Angoff)
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: 1-day computer-based exam
Exam fee: ~$2,200 initial subspecialty certification fee (ABPN 2026)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPN Epilepsy Study Tips from Top Performers

1ILAE 2017 seizure classification — memorize the three-level framework: (1) onset (focal, generalized, unknown); (2) for focal, awareness (aware or impaired awareness) and motor vs non-motor; (3) specific type. Generalized onset subtypes include tonic-clonic, absence (typical, atypical, myoclonic, eyelid myoclonia), myoclonic, atonic, tonic, clonic, and myoclonic-tonic-clonic (newly added). Know that 'complex partial' is now 'focal impaired awareness' and 'simple partial' is 'focal aware.'

2EEG high-yield patterns: 3 Hz generalized spike-wave activated by hyperventilation = childhood absence epilepsy (ethosuximide first-line per CAEC). 4-6 Hz generalized polyspike-and-wave with photosensitivity = JME (valproate best efficacy but avoid in WCBP; use lamotrigine/levetiracetam). <2.5 Hz slow spike-wave + tonic seizures in sleep = Lennox-Gastaut (cannabidiol, rufinamide, clobazam, felbamate). Hypsarrhythmia = West syndrome (ACTH or vigabatrin, especially for tuberous sclerosis). Centrotemporal spikes activating in sleep = BECTS (often no Rx).

3Status epilepticus ESETT protocol: After benzodiazepine failure (lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV max 4 mg, or IM midazolam 10 mg if no IV per RAMPART), second-line options fosphenytoin 20 PE/kg, levetiracetam 60 mg/kg, and valproate 40 mg/kg were EQUIVALENT in efficacy (~47-52% seizure cessation). Third-line = continuous infusion midazolam, propofol, pentobarbital, or ketamine. Super-refractory SE >24h. NORSE/FIRES — consider autoimmune workup, immunomodulation (steroids, IVIG, plasmapheresis, rituximab, tocilizumab, anakinra), ketogenic diet.

4Dravet syndrome — SCN1A loss-of-function mutation, onset in infancy with febrile/afebrile prolonged seizures, later multiple seizure types, intellectual disability. AVOID sodium-channel blockers (carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine) — WORSEN seizures because they further reduce residual inhibitory interneuron function. First-line: valproate + clobazam. Add-on: stiripentol, cannabidiol (Epidiolex), fenfluramine (FDA 2020). Ketogenic diet effective.

5Pregnancy ASM choices (NAPR registry data): Lamotrigine and levetiracetam have the LOWEST teratogenicity rates (~2-3%, similar to baseline). Valproate has the HIGHEST (~9-11% major malformations — neural tube defects, cardiac, limb; also lowest IQ in offspring) — AVOID in women of childbearing potential when alternatives exist. Topiramate → cleft lip/palate. Carbamazepine → NTD. Lamotrigine levels can drop 50%+ during pregnancy due to increased glucuronidation — monitor free levels monthly, adjust dose, then taper back post-partum. Enzyme-inducing ASMs (carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, topiramate >200 mg/d, oxcarbazepine >1200 mg/d) reduce OCP efficacy — counsel on IUD or implant.

6SUDEP counseling per AAN/AES 2017 guideline: Annual SUDEP incidence in adults with epilepsy is ~1/1000 (higher in refractory, ~1/150). Strongest risk factor: frequent generalized tonic-clonic seizures, especially nocturnal and unwitnessed. Other risks: non-adherence, young adult male, long duration of epilepsy. Counsel ALL patients at diagnosis (not just refractory). Mitigation: optimize seizure control (achieving seizure freedom is the strongest intervention — consider surgery, VNS/RNS/DBS for refractory focal).

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPN Epilepsy Subspecialty Examination?

The ABPN Epilepsy Subspecialty Examination is the board certification exam administered by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology for neurologists and child neurologists who have completed a 1-year ACGME-accredited Epilepsy fellowship. It is a 1-day computer-based examination delivered at Pearson VUE test centers with approximately 200 single-best-answer MCQs assessing knowledge of ILAE 2017 seizure classification and 2022 syndromes, EEG interpretation, common epilepsy syndromes, status epilepticus, antiseizure medications, neuroimaging, presurgical evaluation, epilepsy surgery, neuromodulation, comorbidities, and SUDEP.

Who is eligible to take the ABPN Epilepsy exam?

Candidates must hold a valid ABPN primary certification in Neurology or Child Neurology and must have satisfactorily completed a 1-year ACGME-accredited Epilepsy fellowship. A valid unrestricted medical license and program director attestation of fellowship completion are required. Applications are submitted through the ABPN website within the designated eligibility window.

What is the format of the ABPN Epilepsy exam?

The exam is a 1-day computer-based examination delivered at Pearson VUE test centers consisting of approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions. Questions frequently include EEG tracings (routine, ambulatory, continuous critical care), video-EEG clips, MRI images, seizure semiology vignettes, and pharmacology scenarios. Content is distributed across the 2026 ABPN Epilepsy content outline with emphasis on EEG interpretation and antiseizure medications.

How much does the 2026 ABPN Epilepsy exam cost?

The 2026 ABPN Epilepsy subspecialty initial certification fee is approximately $2,200. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABPN schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Subspecialty certification requires ongoing Continuing Certification (MOC) for both primary (Neurology/Child Neurology) and subspecialty certifications, with associated annual and 10-year recertification fees. Retakes within the eligibility window require full re-registration and fee payment.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ABPN Epilepsy subspecialty examination is typically offered once per year in a fall testing window. Applications open in the spring with a submission deadline prior to the testing window. Candidates schedule specific Pearson VUE appointments after application approval. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABPN Epilepsy page at abpn.com.

How is the exam scored?

ABPN uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score rather than on other test-takers. Score reports include subdomain performance to guide future study. Results are typically released several weeks after the testing window closes.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include: ILAE 2017 seizure classification (focal vs generalized, awareness, motor/non-motor features) and 2022 syndrome framework; EEG pattern recognition (3 Hz spike-wave of CAE, 4-6 Hz polyspike-wave of JME, <2.5 Hz slow spike-wave of LGS, hypsarrhythmia of West, ACNS 2021 LPDs/GPDs/LRDA/GRDA/BIRDs); Dravet with SCN1A and avoidance of sodium-channel blockers; status epilepticus per ESETT (lorazepam then fosphenytoin/levetiracetam/valproate); lamotrigine SJS and pregnancy dose monitoring; carbamazepine HLA-B*1502 in Asians; mesial temporal sclerosis surgery (Wiebe 2001); VNS/RNS/ANT-DBS indications; SUDEP risk factors and AAN/AES counseling; PNES video-EEG features; and ketogenic diet indications (infantile spasms, Dravet, LGS, GLUT1 deficiency).

How should I study for the ABPN Epilepsy exam?

Use a structured 6-12 month plan during and after the 1-year epilepsy fellowship. Start with ILAE 2017 seizure classification and 2022 syndromes, then master EEG pattern recognition (normal variants, IEDs, focal vs generalized, ACNS 2021 critical care nomenclature). Move to common syndromes, status epilepticus per ESETT, ASM mechanisms and adverse effects (NAPR pregnancy data, SUDEP counseling per AAN/AES 2017), neuroimaging (mesial temporal sclerosis, FCD, TSC), presurgical evaluation and surgery, neuromodulation (VNS/RNS/DBS), and comorbidities/PNES/genetics. Core resources: Engel & Pedley Epilepsy: A Comprehensive Textbook, Wyllie's Treatment of Epilepsy, Ebersole & Pedley Current Practice of Clinical EEG, Fisch & Spehlmann EEG Primer, Blume Atlas of EEG, AES self-assessment modules, Continuum Epilepsy issues. Complete 2-3 timed full-length mock exams.