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100+ Free ABPN Child Neurology Practice Questions

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A 6-month-old presents with clusters of brief symmetric flexor spasms on awakening and developmental regression. EEG shows hypsarrhythmia. Which first-line therapy is most appropriate for this non-TSC presentation?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABPN Child Neurology Exam

~300

Total MCQ Items

ABPN Child Neurology Primary Certification Exam

~8 hr

Total Exam Time

1-day computer-based test including breaks

~18-22%

Epilepsy Weight

Largest domain on 2026 ABPN Child Neurology content outline

$2,050

2026 Exam Fee

ABPN initial Child Neurology certification

5 yr

Required Training

2 yr peds + 1 yr adult neuro + 2 yr child neuro (ACGME)

Pearson VUE

Test Delivery

Computer-based testing at authorized centers

The ABPN Child Neurology Primary Certification Examination is a 1-day computer-based test at Pearson VUE containing ~300 single-best-answer MCQs over ~8 hours. The 2026 content outline emphasizes pediatric epilepsy (~18-22%), neonatal neurology (~10-12%), neuromuscular disease (~10-12%), neurometabolic/leukodystrophies (~10-12%), NDD (~8-10%), neurocutaneous (~6-8%), neuro-oncology/autoimmune (~6-8%), pediatric stroke/headache (~6-8%), cerebral palsy (~6-8%), movement disorders (~5-7%), and sleep/infection/ethics (~4-6%). Initial certification fee is ~$2,050; requires a 5-year ACGME pathway (2 yr peds + 1 yr adult neuro + 2 yr child neuro).

Sample ABPN Child Neurology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABPN Child Neurology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 6-month-old presents with clusters of brief symmetric flexor spasms on awakening and developmental regression. EEG shows hypsarrhythmia. Which first-line therapy is most appropriate for this non-TSC presentation?
A.Ketogenic diet as first-line
B.Levetiracetam monotherapy
C.ACTH (or high-dose oral prednisolone)
D.Valproate monotherapy
Explanation: Infantile spasms (West syndrome) is diagnosed by epileptic spasms plus hypsarrhythmia plus developmental regression. For non-TSC etiologies, ACTH (or high-dose oral prednisolone) is first-line per the AAN/CNS practice guideline. Vigabatrin is first-line when TSC is the cause. Earlier treatment correlates with better developmental outcomes. The ICISS trial supports combined hormonal + vigabatrin for some cases.
2A 10-month-old with tuberous sclerosis complex presents with new-onset epileptic spasms and hypsarrhythmia on EEG. Which antiseizure medication is first-line?
A.Oxcarbazepine
B.ACTH
C.Vigabatrin
D.Phenytoin
Explanation: In TSC-associated infantile spasms, vigabatrin is first-line (higher response rate than ACTH in this population and treats the mTOR-driven pathology). Retinal toxicity is the principal adverse effect — serial ophthalmologic/ERG monitoring is required. ACTH is first-line for non-TSC spasms.
3A 14-month-old girl with prolonged febrile seizures, hemiclonic episodes, and developmental slowing has a de novo SCN1A loss-of-function mutation. Which antiseizure medication should be AVOIDED?
A.Stiripentol
B.Valproate
C.Clobazam
D.Lamotrigine
Explanation: Dravet syndrome is most often caused by SCN1A loss-of-function variants. Sodium-channel blockers — lamotrigine, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenytoin — worsen seizures and are contraindicated. First-line: valproate, clobazam; add stiripentol, fenfluramine, or cannabidiol (all FDA-approved for Dravet). The ketogenic diet is highly effective.
4A 7-year-old has multiple brief staring spells daily, provoked by hyperventilation, with no GTCs. EEG shows generalized 3-Hz spike-wave discharges. Per the CAEC trial, which is the first-line therapy?
A.Ethosuximide
B.Lamotrigine
C.Topiramate
D.Levetiracetam
Explanation: The Glauser 2010 CAEC trial showed ethosuximide and valproate were equivalent for childhood absence seizure freedom, but ethosuximide had fewer attentional adverse effects than valproate; lamotrigine was inferior. When GTCs coexist, valproate (or levetiracetam) is preferred because ethosuximide does not cover tonic-clonic seizures.
5A 16-year-old girl has early-morning myoclonic jerks, infrequent GTCs, and photosensitive generalized polyspike-wave on EEG. Which medication is preferred given her sex and reproductive potential?
A.Levetiracetam
B.Valproate
C.Carbamazepine
D.Phenytoin
Explanation: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy responds best to valproate, but valproate is teratogenic (neural tube defects, reduced IQ) and is generally avoided in girls/women of childbearing potential. Levetiracetam and lamotrigine are preferred alternatives. Sodium-channel blockers (carbamazepine, phenytoin) can worsen myoclonus and should be avoided.
6A 6-year-old boy has nocturnal hemifacial motor seizures with drooling. EEG shows centrotemporal spikes activated by sleep. Development is normal. Which management is most appropriate?
A.Urgent epilepsy surgery evaluation
B.Start lifelong valproate
C.Reassurance and education; antiseizure medication is usually not required
D.Pursue VNS implantation
Explanation: Benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS/benign rolandic epilepsy) is a self-limited age-dependent childhood epilepsy. Most patients have rare seizures and remit by adolescence. Reassurance is typically sufficient. ASM (e.g., levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine) is used only if seizures are frequent or cause functional impairment.
7A 4-year-old previously normal girl develops acquired verbal auditory agnosia and behavioral regression. Sleep EEG reveals continuous spike-and-wave during slow-wave sleep (ESES). Which syndrome is most likely?
A.Rett syndrome
B.Landau-Kleffner syndrome
C.Autism spectrum disorder
D.Childhood disintegrative disorder
Explanation: Landau-Kleffner syndrome (acquired epileptic aphasia) presents with acquired verbal auditory agnosia/aphasia in a previously normal child, with near-continuous spike-and-wave activation in sleep (ESES/CSWS). Treatment includes high-dose steroids, benzodiazepines, or IVIG; early recognition is crucial to preserve language.
8A 22-month-old has a 3-minute generalized tonic-clonic convulsion in the setting of fever (39.4°C) with a normal neurologic exam and no focal features. What is the most appropriate next step?
A.Start prophylactic phenobarbital
B.Obtain EEG and MRI to rule out epilepsy
C.Reassure, identify source of fever, and manage as simple febrile seizure — no EEG, neuroimaging, or LP required
D.Perform lumbar puncture routinely in all febrile seizures
Explanation: Simple febrile seizures (generalized, <15 min, one episode in 24 hours, age 6 mo-5 yr, no focal features) do not require EEG, neuroimaging, or routine LP. LP is considered only if meningitis signs are present, age <12 months with incomplete vaccinations, or pretreated with antibiotics. Prognosis is excellent.
9A 3-year-old has refractory epilepsy with multiple seizure types (tonic, atonic, atypical absence), cognitive decline, and EEG showing 1.5-2.5 Hz generalized slow spike-wave. Which syndrome is most likely and which therapy is FDA-approved for it?
A.Dravet syndrome — fenfluramine
B.Lennox-Gastaut syndrome — rufinamide
C.Childhood absence — ethosuximide
D.BECTS — observation
Explanation: Lennox-Gastaut syndrome features multiple seizure types (tonic seizures in sleep are highly characteristic), cognitive regression, and slow spike-wave (1.5-2.5 Hz). FDA-approved therapies include rufinamide, felbamate (aplastic anemia/hepatotoxicity black box), clobazam, cannabidiol, and topiramate. Ketogenic diet and corpus callosotomy for drop attacks are options.
10A 2-year-old in status epilepticus has failed two doses of IV lorazepam. Which second-line agent is appropriate per the ESETT trial?
A.IV levetiracetam, fosphenytoin, or valproate (all similarly effective)
B.IV thiopental immediately
C.Rectal diazepam
D.Oral phenobarbital
Explanation: The ESETT trial (Kapur 2019) found levetiracetam, fosphenytoin, and valproate equally effective (~50% seizure termination) as second-line therapy in benzodiazepine-refractory status epilepticus. If the second-line agent fails, proceed to third-line continuous infusions (midazolam, pentobarbital, propofol) with EEG monitoring.

About the ABPN Child Neurology Exam

The ABPN Child Neurology Primary Certification Examination is a one-day computer-based test administered by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology through Pearson VUE. It contains approximately 300 single-best-answer MCQs spanning pediatric epilepsy (neonatal seizures, infantile spasms/West, Dravet, Lennox-Gastaut, CAE, JME, BECTS, status epilepticus, genetic channelopathies), neonatal neurology (HIE with therapeutic hypothermia, IVH, PVL, neonatal stroke, cortical malformations, neural tube defects), cerebral palsy (GMFCS, spasticity management), neurodevelopmental disorders (ASD, ID, ADHD, fragile X, Rett, Angelman, Prader-Willi), movement disorders (Tourette, dystonia, chorea, ataxia, Friedreich), neuromuscular disease (SMA, DMD/Becker, myotonic dystrophy, CMT, GBS/CIDP, MG, Pompe), neurometabolic disease and leukodystrophies (MELAS, Leigh, ALD, MLD, Krabbe, Canavan, PKU, urea cycle, lysosomal storage), neurocutaneous syndromes (NF1/NF2, TSC, Sturge-Weber, A-T), pediatric stroke, headache, autoimmune and infectious encephalitis, pediatric MS/MOG-AD, pediatric brain tumors (medulloblastoma, pilocytic astrocytoma, AT/RT, DIPG H3 K27-altered, craniopharyngioma), sleep, ethics, and transition. Requires completion of the 5-year ACGME pathway.

Questions

300 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day CBT (~8 hours including breaks)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPN (modified Angoff)

Exam Fee

~$2,050 initial Child Neurology Primary Certification fee (ABPN 2026) (American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology (ABPN) / Pearson VUE)

ABPN Child Neurology Exam Content Outline

~18-22%

Pediatric Epilepsy & Seizure Disorders

Neonatal seizures, benign familial neonatal epilepsy (KCNQ2), infantile spasms/West syndrome (hypsarrhythmia — ACTH first-line; vigabatrin first-line for TSC-associated spasms), Dravet (SCN1A — fenfluramine, cannabidiol, stiripentol; AVOID sodium-channel blockers like carbamazepine and lamotrigine), Lennox-Gastaut (slow spike-wave, multiple seizure types — rufinamide, felbamate, cannabidiol), childhood absence epilepsy (ethosuximide first-line per CAEC trial over valproate and lamotrigine), juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (valproate most effective but avoid in girls of childbearing potential — use lamotrigine or levetiracetam), BECTS (usually no treatment required), Landau-Kleffner, ESES, febrile seizures (simple vs complex), status epilepticus (benzodiazepines → levetiracetam/fosphenytoin/valproate), genetic channelopathies (SCN1A, SCN2A, SCN8A, STXBP1, KCNQ2, CDKL5, PCDH19).

~10-12%

Neonatal Neurology & Congenital Malformations

Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy (therapeutic hypothermia at 33.5°C for 72 hours initiated within 6 hours of life for moderate-to-severe Sarnat stage II-III), intraventricular hemorrhage grades I-IV, periventricular leukomalacia, perinatal arterial ischemic stroke (left MCA most common), cortical malformations (lissencephaly, pachygyria, polymicrogyria, hemimegalencephaly, focal cortical dysplasia, schizencephaly, holoprosencephaly), Dandy-Walker, Chiari I/II, neural tube defects (folate 400 µg preconception prevents ~70% of NTDs), inborn errors of metabolism screening.

~10-12%

Neuromuscular Disease

Spinal muscular atrophy (SMN1 homozygous deletion with SMN2 copy modifier; universal newborn screening; types I-IV — nusinersen intrathecal ASO, onasemnogene abeparvovec one-time gene therapy in patients <2 years, risdiplam oral splice-modifier). Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Xp21 DMD gene out-of-frame deletions; Gower sign, calf pseudohypertrophy, CK 10,000-20,000; deflazacort or prednisone standard of care; exon-skipping ASOs — eteplirsen (51), casimersen (45), golodirsen/viltolarsen (53); delandistrogene moxeparvovec gene therapy approved 2023; annual cardiomyopathy surveillance). Becker (in-frame deletions), congenital and childhood-onset myotonic dystrophy (DM1 — DMPK CTG repeat), CMT, GBS/CIDP, congenital and juvenile myasthenia gravis, Pompe disease (GAA — infantile cardiomyopathy vs late-onset; ERT with alglucosidase alfa).

~10-12%

Neurometabolic Disease & Leukodystrophies

MELAS (mtDNA A3243G — stroke-like episodes, lactic acidosis, seizures — ragged red fibers), Leigh syndrome (bilateral symmetric T2 hyperintensity of basal ganglia/brainstem), X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy (ABCD1 — elevated very long-chain fatty acids; Addison disease plus demyelination; HSCT if early Loes score), MLD (ARSA — arylsulfatase A), Krabbe (GALC — globoid cells), Canavan (ASPA — NAA peak on MRS), Alexander (GFAP), vanishing white matter, PKU (newborn screening, phenylalanine restriction), MSUD, organic acidurias, urea-cycle defects (OTC X-linked — hyperammonemia with normal anion gap, low BUN), lysosomal storage (MPS I Hurler/II Hunter/III Sanfilippo; Niemann-Pick A/B/C; Tay-Sachs — cherry red spot, hexosaminidase A; Gaucher; Fabry), peroxisomal (Zellweger).

~8-10%

Neurodevelopmental Disorders

Autism spectrum disorder (DSM-5-TR — social communication and restricted/repetitive behaviors; M-CHAT-R at 18 and 24 months; chromosomal microarray is first-tier genetic test with 10-20% yield; fragile X FMR1 CGG >200; MECP2 in girls with regression — Rett; PTEN if macrocephaly; whole-exome when above negative), intellectual disability etiologic workup, ADHD, specific learning disability, fragile X (FMR1 CGG >200), Prader-Willi (15q11-q13 paternal deletion — hypotonia then hyperphagia), Angelman (15q11-q13 maternal UBE3A — happy puppet, ataxia, epilepsy), Rett (MECP2 — hand stereotypies, acquired microcephaly, hyperventilation, GI dysmotility).

~6-8%

Neurocutaneous Syndromes

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1 gene 17q — neurofibromin tumor suppressor; ≥6 café-au-lait spots, axillary/inguinal freckling, Lisch nodules, optic pathway glioma, plexiform neurofibromas treated with selumetinib MEK inhibitor), NF2 (22q — merlin; bilateral vestibular schwannomas, meningiomas, ependymomas), tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC1/TSC2 — mTOR pathway; cortical tubers, SEGAs managed with everolimus; ash-leaf/shagreen/facial angiofibroma/ungual fibroma; cardiac rhabdomyoma; infantile spasms treated with vigabatrin first-line per TSC guidelines), Sturge-Weber (somatic GNAQ R183Q — port-wine stain V1, leptomeningeal angiomatosis, seizures, glaucoma; tram-track calcifications), ataxia-telangiectasia (ATM — combined immunodeficiency, oculocutaneous telangiectasias, leukemia/lymphoma, radiosensitivity).

~6-8%

Pediatric Neuro-oncology & Autoimmune

Medulloblastoma (WHO 2021 molecular subgroups — WNT best prognosis, SHH variable, Group 3 worst with MYC amplification, Group 4; posterior fossa), pilocytic astrocytoma (KIAA1549-BRAF fusion; cerebellar, often surgically curable; optic pathway glioma — NF1 association), atypical teratoid/rhabdoid tumor (SMARCB1/INI1 loss; infants <3 years), ependymoma (posterior fossa — PFA/PFB; supratentorial ZFTA fusion), craniopharyngioma (bitemporal hemianopsia, diabetes insipidus, growth failure — calcified sellar mass), diffuse midline glioma H3 K27-altered (DIPG — pons, poor prognosis), anti-NMDAR encephalitis (adolescent girls — ovarian teratoma; psychiatric prodrome → movement disorder → autonomic instability), Rasmussen encephalitis (unilateral chronic, epilepsia partialis continua — hemispherectomy), ADEM, pediatric MS, MOG antibody-associated disease.

~6-8%

Pediatric Stroke & Headache

Pediatric arterial ischemic stroke (sickle cell disease — TCD >200 cm/s triggers chronic transfusion per STOP trial; moyamoya — bypass surgery; congenital heart disease; arterial dissection; antiphospholipid syndrome), hemorrhagic stroke (AVM most common cause of spontaneous ICH in kids, cavernoma), perinatal stroke, COL4A1-associated disease, migraine variants/episodic syndromes of childhood (abdominal migraine, cyclic vomiting, benign paroxysmal vertigo, benign paroxysmal torticollis of infancy), acute migraine (ibuprofen; rizatriptan FDA age 6+, almotriptan/zolmitriptan nasal/sumatriptan-naproxen 12+), prevention (topiramate FDA 12+; CGRP mAbs 12+).

~6-8%

Cerebral Palsy

Gross Motor Function Classification System (GMFCS) levels I-V (I = walks without limitations; V = non-ambulatory), topographic (hemiplegia, diplegia, quadriplegia) and physiologic classification (spastic ~80%, dyskinetic — dystonic/athetoid, ataxic, mixed), etiology (antenatal factors 70-80%; intrapartum HIE responsible for <10% of term-born CP cases), associated comorbidities (epilepsy, intellectual disability, cortical visual impairment, hip surveillance per AACPDM schedule by GMFCS, sialorrhea, scoliosis), treatment (enteral baclofen, botulinum toxin, intrathecal baclofen pump, selective dorsal rhizotomy in select GMFCS II-III patients).

~5-7%

Movement Disorders

Tourette syndrome (motor + vocal tics with premonitory urge; Comprehensive Behavioral Intervention for Tics (CBIT) is first-line; alpha-2 agonists clonidine/guanfacine first pharmacologic; aripiprazole FDA-approved; haloperidol and pimozide carry tardive dyskinesia risk), dystonia (primary — DYT1/TOR1A — vs secondary; DRD — responsive to low-dose levodopa), chorea (Sydenham post-streptococcal — major Jones criterion; juvenile Huntington), myoclonus, acute cerebellar ataxia (post-infectious, especially varicella), opsoclonus-myoclonus-ataxia syndrome (screen for neuroblastoma — urine VMA/HVA, MIBG), Friedreich ataxia (FXN GAA repeat; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, diabetes, scoliosis; omaveloxolone FDA-approved 2023).

~4-6%

Sleep, Infection, Ethics & Core Neuroscience

Pediatric sleep (NREM parasomnias — night terrors, sleepwalking; narcolepsy type 1 with cataplexy — hypocretin deficiency; behavioral insomnia; obstructive sleep apnea — adenotonsillectomy first-line), CNS infections (bacterial meningitis empiric ceftriaxone plus vancomycin; dexamethasone before first antibiotic dose for suspected Hib; neonatal GBS and E. coli — ampicillin + cefotaxime/gentamicin; neonatal HSV — acyclovir 60 mg/kg/day IV for 14-21 days depending on disease extent; CSF PCR), viral encephalitis (HSV-1 temporal lobe), cerebral malaria, informed consent and assent in pediatric research, transition to adult neurology, biostatistics.

How to Pass the ABPN Child Neurology Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABPN (modified Angoff)
  • Exam length: 300 questions
  • Time limit: 1-day CBT (~8 hours including breaks)
  • Exam fee: ~$2,050 initial Child Neurology Primary Certification fee (ABPN 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABPN Child Neurology Study Tips from Top Performers

1Infantile spasms (West syndrome) = epileptic spasms + hypsarrhythmia on EEG + developmental regression, typically onset 3-12 months. First-line therapy is ACTH (or high-dose oral prednisolone) for most etiologies; vigabatrin is first-line when the cause is tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC). Combined ACTH + vigabatrin is superior to monotherapy in some trials (UKISS/ICISS). Treatment delay worsens cognitive outcome — diagnose and treat urgently.
2Dravet syndrome (SCN1A loss-of-function, ~80% of cases): onset in the first year with prolonged febrile status epilepticus, progressing to multiple seizure types and developmental regression. AVOID sodium-channel blockers (carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin) — they worsen seizures. First-line therapies include valproate, clobazam, stiripentol, fenfluramine, and cannabidiol (all FDA-approved specifically for Dravet). Ketogenic diet is effective.
3Childhood absence epilepsy (4-10 yr, 3-Hz generalized spike-wave on EEG, provoked by hyperventilation): Per the NIH-funded CAEC trial (Glauser 2010), ethosuximide and valproate were equivalent for seizure freedom, but ethosuximide had fewer attention adverse effects than valproate. Lamotrigine was inferior to both. Therefore, ethosuximide is first-line when there are no generalized tonic-clonic seizures. If GTCs coexist, valproate (or levetiracetam) covers both.
4Therapeutic hypothermia for neonatal HIE: cool to 33.5°C core temperature for 72 hours, initiated within 6 hours of life, in infants ≥36 weeks with moderate-to-severe encephalopathy (Sarnat stage II or III) and evidence of perinatal hypoxia-ischemia (cord pH ≤7.0, base deficit ≥16, or APGAR ≤5 at 10 minutes). Hypothermia reduces death and major neurodevelopmental disability (NNT ~6-8).
5Tuberous sclerosis complex (TSC1 9q34 or TSC2 16p13 — mTOR pathway) triad mnemonic 'HAMARTOMAS': cortical tubers, subependymal nodules, subependymal giant-cell astrocytomas (SEGAs treated with everolimus), cardiac rhabdomyoma (often regresses), renal angiomyolipoma, facial angiofibroma, ash-leaf hypomelanotic macules (Wood's lamp), shagreen patches, and ungual fibromas. Infantile spasms in TSC — vigabatrin first-line. Everolimus is FDA-approved for SEGA, renal AML, and refractory seizures in TSC.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABPN Child Neurology Primary Certification Examination?

It is the initial board certification examination in Child Neurology administered by the American Board of Psychiatry and Neurology (ABPN). The Primary Certification is a 1-day computer-based multiple-choice test delivered at Pearson VUE centers, assessing knowledge across pediatric epilepsy, neonatal neurology, cerebral palsy, neurodevelopmental disorders, movement disorders, neuromuscular disease, neurometabolic and leukodystrophies, neurocutaneous syndromes, pediatric stroke and headache, autoimmune and infectious encephalitis, pediatric neuro-oncology, sleep, and core neuroscience. Passing grants ABPN board certification in Child Neurology.

Who is eligible to take the ABPN Child Neurology exam?

Candidates must complete the 5-year ACGME-accredited Child Neurology training pathway, consisting of 2 years of pediatrics, 1 year of adult neurology, and 2 years of child neurology residency, or an approved equivalent pathway. Candidates must hold a valid unrestricted medical license and obtain program director attestation of satisfactory completion. Applications are submitted through the ABPN website within the eligibility window.

What is the format of the ABPN Child Neurology exam?

The Primary Certification is a 1-day computer-based examination administered at Pearson VUE centers, consisting of approximately 300 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions delivered over roughly 8 hours including breaks. Questions frequently include clinical vignettes with MRI, EEG tracings, NCS/EMG, pathology images, photographs of cutaneous findings (café-au-lait, ash-leaf, port-wine stain), and genetic testing data. Content is distributed across the 2026 ABPN Child Neurology content outline.

How much does the 2026 ABPN Child Neurology exam cost?

The 2026 ABPN Child Neurology Primary Certification application fee is approximately $2,050. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABPN schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Continuing Certification (MOC) requires annual Article-Based CC activities and a 10-year recertification cycle, each with associated fees. Retakes within the eligibility window require full re-registration and fee payment.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ABPN Child Neurology Primary Certification Examination is typically offered once per year in a testing window. Applications open several months before the testing window with a submission deadline set by ABPN. Candidates schedule specific Pearson VUE appointments after application approval and credentialing review. Exact 2026 dates and deadlines should be confirmed on the ABPN Child Neurology certification page.

How is the exam scored?

ABPN uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system with a passing standard set by content-expert committees using the modified Angoff method. A candidate's pass/fail result depends on performance relative to the fixed cut-score rather than on other test-takers. Score reports include subdomain performance to guide future study and MOC activities. Results are typically released several weeks after the testing window closes.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include: infantile spasms/West syndrome (hypsarrhythmia — ACTH first-line, vigabatrin first-line for TSC), Dravet syndrome (SCN1A — avoid sodium-channel blockers), childhood absence epilepsy (ethosuximide first-line per CAEC trial), therapeutic hypothermia for neonatal HIE, GMFCS classification and hip surveillance in cerebral palsy, first-tier genetic testing in ASD (chromosomal microarray, fragile X, MECP2), SMA gene therapy (onasemnogene abeparvovec, nusinersen, risdiplam), DMD exon-skipping and gene therapy, neurocutaneous syndromes (NF1 selumetinib, TSC everolimus, Sturge-Weber GNAQ), MELAS and Leigh imaging, medulloblastoma molecular subgroups (WNT/SHH/Group 3/Group 4), DIPG H3 K27-altered, anti-NMDAR encephalitis (ovarian teratoma), and pediatric sickle cell stroke (TCD >200 triggers transfusion per STOP trial).

How should I study for ABPN Child Neurology?

Use a structured 12-18 month plan during PGY-4 and PGY-5. Map to the ABPN Child Neurology content outline: lead with pediatric epilepsy and neonatal neurology, then neuromuscular and neurometabolic disease, then neurocutaneous syndromes, cerebral palsy, neurodevelopmental disorders, pediatric stroke and headache, neuro-oncology, autoimmune, sleep, and core neuroscience. Core resources include Swaiman's Pediatric Neurology, Fenichel's Clinical Pediatric Neurology, Volpe's Neurology of the Newborn, the PREP Child Neurology question bank, AAN Continuum Child Neurology issues, and the Child Neurology Society residency review. Drill high-volume MCQs with timed sets and complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams.