Free IICA Independent Director Test Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Independent Director Online Proficiency Self-Assessment Test. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

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Which board roles are excluded from the Companies Act definition of an independent director?

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About These IICA Independent Director Test Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Independent Director Online Proficiency Self-Assessment Test. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Companies Law13 cards
Securities Law13 cards
Basic Accountancy12 cards
Corporate Governance12 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

Which board roles are excluded from the Companies Act definition of an independent director?

An independent director is a director other than a managing director, whole-time director, or nominee director. The individual must also satisfy the independence criteria in section 149(6).

What minimum independent-director proportion does the Companies Act require for a listed public company?

At least one-third of the total number of directors must be independent directors. A fraction in that one-third calculation is rounded up to one.

When must an independent director give the Companies Act declaration of independence?

At the first Board meeting in which the person participates, at the first Board meeting of every financial year thereafter, and whenever circumstances change in a way that may affect independence.

Can an independent director receive stock options under the Companies Act?

No. An independent director is not entitled to stock options. Subject to the Act, the director may receive meeting fees, reimbursement of participation expenses, profit-related commission approved by members, and permitted remuneration where profits are absent or inadequate.

What is the Companies Act limit for one independent-director term?

A term may run for up to five consecutive years. Reappointment requires a special resolution and disclosure of the reappointment in the Board's report.

What follows two consecutive terms as an independent director?

The person must complete a three-year cooling-off period before appointment again. During that period, the person must not be appointed in, or associated with, the company in another capacity, directly or indirectly.

When can an independent director be liable for a company's act or omission?

Liability is limited to matters that occurred with the director's knowledge attributable through Board processes and with consent or connivance, or where the director did not act diligently.

Whose interests must a director consider when acting in good faith under section 166?

The director acts to promote the company's objects for members as a whole and in the best interests of the company, employees, shareholders, and community, while protecting the environment.

What conduct standard does section 166 set for a director's decision-making?

The director must exercise due and reasonable care, skill, and diligence, and must exercise independent judgment. Attendance alone does not satisfy that standard.

What should a director do about a direct or indirect interest that may conflict with the company?

The director must avoid a situation in which the interest conflicts, or may possibly conflict, with the company's interest. Applicable disclosure and participation restrictions must also be followed.

How is an Audit Committee constituted under section 177 of the Companies Act?

It has at least three directors, with independent directors forming a majority. A majority of members, including the chairperson, must be able to read and understand financial statements.

What is the Audit Committee's core role in relation to the statutory auditor?

It recommends the auditor's appointment, remuneration, and terms, and reviews the auditor's independence, performance, and the effectiveness of the audit process.

What protections must a Companies Act vigil mechanism provide?

It must provide adequate safeguards against victimisation and allow direct access to the Audit Committee chairperson in appropriate or exceptional cases.

What basic Board-composition rule does SEBI LODR regulation 17 set?

The Board must have an optimum mix of executive and non-executive directors, include at least one woman director, and comprise at least 50% non-executive directors.

How does the Board chair affect the LODR minimum proportion of independent directors?

With a regular non-executive chair, at least one-third of the Board must be independent. Without one, at least half must be independent. At least half is also required when that non-executive chair is a promoter or is related to specified promoters or management personnel.

What does LODR require of a listed entity's Audit Committee membership?

It must have at least three directors, at least two-thirds independent directors, all members financially literate, and at least one member with accounting or related financial-management expertise.

How often must a listed entity's Audit Committee meet under LODR?

At least four times in a financial year, with no more than 120 days between consecutive meetings. Quorum is two members or one-third of the committee, whichever is greater, including at least two independent directors.

How must a listed entity's Nomination and Remuneration Committee be composed?

It must have at least three directors, all non-executive, with at least two-thirds independent directors. Its chairperson must be an independent director.

What shareholder approval does LODR generally require for an independent director?

The appointment, reappointment, or removal of an independent director is subject to shareholder approval by special resolution, including the voting route in the regulation's provisos where applicable.

What must listed-entity independent directors do at their separate annual meeting?

Without management or non-independent directors present, they review the performance of non-independent directors, the Board as a whole and the chairperson, and assess the quality, quantity, and timeliness of management-to-Board information.

What extra confirmation accompanies an LODR declaration of independence?

The director confirms meeting the regulation 16 independence criteria and being unaware of circumstances that could impair objective independent judgment or expose it to external influence. The Board must assess the declaration's veracity.

What makes information UPSI under the SEBI insider-trading rules?

It relates directly or indirectly to a company or its securities, is not generally available, and would likely materially affect the securities' price when made public. The regulations list ordinary examples, but the definition is not limited to that list.

Who is an insider under the SEBI PIT Regulations?

A connected person, or any person who possesses or has access to unpublished price sensitive information. A job title is not required for the possession-or-access limb.

When may UPSI be shared for a legitimate purpose?

Only in furtherance of legitimate purposes, performance of duties, or discharge of legal obligations. A recipient of UPSI for a legitimate purpose is treated as an insider and must be notified to maintain confidentiality.

What must a structured digital database record about shared UPSI?

It records the nature of the UPSI, who shared it, who received it, and PAN or another authorised identifier where PAN is unavailable. It must be maintained internally with controls such as time stamps and audit trails, and ordinarily preserved for at least eight years after the relevant transaction.

What is the basic SEBI rule on trading while holding UPSI?

An insider must not trade in securities listed or proposed to be listed while in possession of UPSI. The regulations contain specific defences and exceptions, so a director should obtain compliance review rather than assume a trade is permitted.

What is the fundamental accounting equation?

Assets = Liabilities + Equity. Every correctly recorded transaction preserves this equality, even when several accounts change at once.

How does a balance sheet differ from a statement of profit and loss?

A balance sheet shows assets, liabilities, and equity at a point in time. A statement of profit and loss reports income and expenses over a period.

Why can accrual profit differ from cash generated?

Revenue and expenses are recognised when earned or incurred under accrual accounting, not necessarily when cash moves. Credit sales, payables, depreciation, provisions, and working-capital changes can separate profit from cash flow.

What do the three sections of a cash-flow statement show?

Operating activities show cash from core operations; investing activities show purchases and disposals of long-term assets and investments; financing activities show transactions involving borrowings and owners' capital.

What does the current ratio test?

Current assets divided by current liabilities indicates short-term balance-sheet liquidity. A higher ratio is not automatically better because slow inventory or overdue receivables may inflate current assets.

Why is the quick ratio stricter than the current ratio?

It focuses on more liquid current assets, commonly cash, short-term investments, and receivables, and excludes inventory and other less readily convertible items before dividing by current liabilities.

What does the debt-to-equity ratio indicate?

Debt divided by shareholders' equity indicates the extent to which debt financing is used relative to owners' capital. Compare like-for-like definitions and industry peers before drawing a conclusion.

How is gross profit margin calculated and interpreted?

Gross profit divided by revenue, multiplied by 100. It shows the share of revenue remaining after the directly attributable cost of goods or services, before operating expenses, finance costs, and tax.

What does return on equity measure?

Net profit attributable to equity holders divided by average shareholders' equity is a common formulation. It shows profit generated relative to owners' capital, but leverage can raise both the ratio and financial risk.

What is working capital?

Current assets minus current liabilities. It is a liquidity measure, but the quality and timing of receivables, inventory, and payables matter more than the total alone.

What warning appears when receivables grow much faster than revenue?

Cash collection may be weakening or revenue recognition may deserve closer review. The Board should examine ageing, credit terms, customer concentration, subsequent collections, and expected-credit-loss assumptions before concluding why.

How do qualified, adverse, and disclaimer audit opinions differ?

Qualified means a material issue is not pervasive; adverse means material and pervasive misstatement; disclaimer means the auditor cannot obtain sufficient evidence and the possible effects may be material and pervasive.

How does the Board's role differ from management's role?

The Board provides direction, approves major strategy and risk boundaries, appoints and oversees leadership, and holds management accountable. Management executes strategy and runs day-to-day operations.

What does independence in substance require from a director?

Objective judgment free from relationships, incentives, or pressure that impair challenge. Meeting a formal eligibility test is necessary, but effective independence also requires questioning evidence and forming one's own view.

What should a prospective independent director examine before joining a Board?

The business model, financial condition, ownership, litigation and regulatory exposure, governance record, Board dynamics, expected workload, access to information, and available director-indemnity and insurance arrangements.

What is the sound governance response to a personal conflict of interest?

Disclose it promptly and fully, follow the applicable law and policy on participation or recusal, and ensure the decision and safeguards are properly documented. Silence does not preserve independence.

Why should a Board encourage constructive dissent?

Respectful challenge exposes weak assumptions, alternatives, and risks before a decision is fixed. A chair should draw out minority views and prevent hierarchy or groupthink from suppressing relevant evidence.

What makes a Board information pack decision-useful?

It is timely, concise, accurate, comparable, and explicit about assumptions, alternatives, risks, and decisions required. Directors should request missing source data rather than accept an attractive summary at face value.

What is the purpose of Board evaluation?

To identify how the Board, committees, and individual directors can improve composition, preparation, information flow, challenge, decision-making, and follow-through. It should produce actions, owners, and review dates rather than a compliance score alone.

Why do related-party transactions require heightened governance?

A related party may influence terms away from the company's interests. Directors should verify identification, business purpose, pricing and alternatives, required approvals, abstentions, disclosures, and post-approval monitoring.

What makes a whistleblowing system credible?

Safe and accessible reporting channels, protection against retaliation, independent triage, competent investigation, confidentiality, remediation, and reporting to an oversight body such as the Audit Committee.

What is the Board's role in risk appetite?

The Board approves the nature and amount of risk the company is prepared to accept in pursuing objectives, checks alignment with strategy and capacity, and monitors whether actual exposures and breaches stay within that boundary.

What should the Board do during a corporate crisis?

Establish reliable facts, protect people and critical operations, clarify decision rights, oversee lawful and timely disclosure, test management's response and liquidity, preserve evidence, and review causes and remediation after stabilisation.

How should stakeholder interests enter a Board decision?

Identify materially affected stakeholders, understand lawful duties and likely impacts, compare options and mitigations, and document the reasoning. Stakeholder analysis informs judgment; it does not eliminate accountability to the company and applicable law.

Frequently Asked Questions

What does the IICA Independent Director self-assessment test cover?

IICA publishes four areas: Companies Law, Securities Law, Basic Accountancy, and Corporate Governance. Its e-learning page further lists board essentials, board practice, and corporate case-study modules, but the public pages do not assign test weights to the four areas.

What score is required to pass the test?

A candidate must obtain at least 50% in aggregate. The public self-assessment page does not publish a fixed question count or test duration.

How soon can a candidate book another attempt?

IICA allows unlimited attempts, but requires a gap of one day between two booked slots. The same rule applies if a candidate fails a test or misses a booked slot.

How long does a Databank member have to pass?

Unless exempt, an individual must pass within two years from the date the individual's name is included in the Databank. Failure to do so results in removal of the name from the Databank under the published rule.

Who may be exempt from the proficiency test?

The current rules include exemptions for specified individuals with at least three years in qualifying director, KMP, government, regulator, or statutory-body roles, and for advocates, chartered accountants, cost accountants, or company secretaries who are or have been in practice for at least ten years. Candidates should check the complete current rule against their own record.

How are these 50 flashcards allocated?

Because IICA does not publish domain weights, this set uses a balanced editorial allocation: 13 cards each for Companies Law and Securities Law, and 12 cards each for Basic Accountancy and Corporate Governance. This is a study allocation, not an official blueprint.