Free CHC Exam Flashcards
Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Certified in Healthcare Compliance (CHC) Examination. See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.
What is the code of conduct's function in a compliance program?
It states organization-wide ethical values and behavioral expectations. Detailed policies and procedures translate those expectations into requirements and operational steps for particular risks.
Filter by Topic
Jump to Card
About These CHC Flashcards
These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Certified in Healthcare Compliance (CHC) Examination. Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.
Topics Covered
Complete Flashcard Reference
Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.
What is the code of conduct's function in a compliance program?
It states organization-wide ethical values and behavioral expectations. Detailed policies and procedures translate those expectations into requirements and operational steps for particular risks.
How does a procedure differ from a compliance policy?
A policy states the rule, responsibility, or expected outcome. A procedure specifies who performs the required steps, when they occur, and what evidence is retained.
What should trigger development or revision of a compliance policy?
Emerging laws, enforcement guidance, audit findings, incidents, new services, acquisitions, technology, or changed risk exposure should trigger review and documented revision through the organization's policy process.
Why must Stark and Anti-Kickback analyses remain separate?
They have different elements and protections. A Stark exception does not automatically resolve Anti-Kickback risk, and an Anti-Kickback safe harbor does not establish Stark compliance.
What does HIPAA's minimum-necessary standard generally require?
Use, request, or disclose only the PHI reasonably needed for the purpose. It generally does not apply to provider-to-provider treatment disclosures, disclosures to the individual, or authorized disclosures.
What must a credible non-retaliation policy accomplish?
It must prohibit retribution for good-faith reporting or participation, identify reporting and escalation routes, and be supported by monitoring and consistent action when retaliation is suspected.
What are OIG's seven compliance-program elements?
Written standards; leadership and oversight; training; effective communication and disclosure channels; incentives and consequences; risk assessment, auditing, and monitoring; and response to detected offenses with corrective action.
What makes compliance resources scalable?
Staffing, expertise, technology, and budget should reflect the organization's size, services, geography, regulatory exposure, and risk profile—not a one-size-fits-all headcount.
What should compliance reporting give the governing body?
Timely visibility into material risks, investigations, audit trends, corrective actions, resources, and program effectiveness so the board can exercise informed oversight and challenge management.
How is the compliance officer's independence protected?
Provide sufficient authority, resources, direct access to the governing body, and an independent reporting route that prevents operational leaders from filtering or suppressing compliance concerns.
What should a compliance oversight committee charter define?
Its purpose, membership, authority, meeting cadence, decision rights, escalation duties, documentation, and accountability for supporting and evaluating the compliance program.
Why define the roles of legal, audit, HR, risk, and compliance?
Clear ownership reduces gaps, duplication, and conflicts. It also identifies who advises, investigates, decides, implements, validates, and reports without compromising independence or privilege.
How should an organization define its compliance-program scope?
Map the program to its operations, payers, workforce, third parties, jurisdictions, and current industry risks while preserving organization-wide accountability for compliance.
What distinguishes program effectiveness from activity counts?
Activity counts show work performed; effectiveness evidence shows whether risks were prevented, detected, corrected, and kept from recurring, using outcomes, trends, testing, and stakeholder feedback.
How should regulatory change become an operational control?
Assign an owner to assess applicability, revise policies and workflows, communicate and train affected groups, implement controls, and test whether the change works in practice.
What makes a conflict-of-interest process effective?
It requires disclosure, review by an appropriate independent party, documented mitigation or recusal, and periodic updates when roles, relationships, or financial interests change.
Where should individual compliance accountability appear during employment?
Embed it in job descriptions, onboarding, performance evaluations, and exit interviews so expectations, observed concerns, and accountability are addressed across the employment lifecycle.
What are the key controls in sanctions screening and third-party due diligence?
Check applicable exclusion and sanctions sources, verify possible matches with identifiers, document resolution, address confirmed exclusions, and investigate ownership, reputation, qualifications, and conflicts before engagement.
How do general and risk-specific compliance training differ?
General training establishes baseline duties for broad audiences. Risk-specific training teaches affected roles how to recognize and control the particular risks they encounter.
How should a compliance professional translate a complex regulation?
Convert it into audience-specific decisions, responsibilities, examples, escalation points, and job aids without changing the rule's meaning or omitting important exceptions.
What False Claims Act knowledge standard should training distinguish from mistake?
Civil FCA knowledge includes actual knowledge, deliberate ignorance, and reckless disregard. A compliance response should verify facts rather than assume every error is intentional fraud.
How can training test understanding rather than attendance?
Use role-based scenarios, knowledge checks, observation, audit results, and follow-up testing. Completion records alone show participation, not whether behavior or decisions improved.
What should compliance training records establish?
Document the learner, content, date, delivery method, instructor or source, completion, and assessment results so the organization can demonstrate coverage and follow up on gaps.
What behaviors indicate a strong speak-up culture?
People know where to ask questions, report concerns without fear, receive timely feedback when appropriate, and see leaders respond consistently rather than rewarding silence.
Why should employees have a guidance channel separate from allegations?
Questions can prevent violations before they occur. A visible route for clarification complements reporting channels and helps compliance identify confusing policies or recurring risk areas.
A control owner watches claim edits each week, while compliance performs a scoped retrospective review. Which activity is monitoring, and which is auditing?
The recurring observation of claim edits is monitoring. The defined retrospective review is auditing: an objective examination against criteria with documented scope, methodology, findings, and follow-up.
How should a risk assessment shape the compliance work plan?
Prioritize auditable activities according to likelihood, impact, detectability, regulatory attention, prior findings, and available controls; document why resources address the highest risks.
Why is a risk register more useful than an unranked issue list?
It records risk owners, causes, controls, ratings, mitigation, deadlines, and status, enabling transparent prioritization and reassessment as evidence or operations change.
What promise should an internal reporting channel avoid?
Do not promise absolute confidentiality. Explain that anonymity and confidentiality are protected within legal and practical limits and information is shared only as needed.
What belongs in the initial triage of a compliance report?
Assess immediate safety or ongoing harm, conflicts, evidence-preservation needs, mandatory deadlines, privilege considerations, credibility indicators, and the appropriate owner and urgency.
How can compliance monitor for retaliation after a report?
Track adverse actions, schedule follow-up with the reporter when feasible, review management decisions for consistency, preserve confidentiality, and escalate suspected retaliation promptly.
What makes a compliance audit objective and independent?
Qualified reviewers apply defined criteria and disclose conflicts; people responsible for the activity should not control the scope, evidence, conclusions, or reporting of findings.
How should an auditor choose a sampling method?
Match the sample to the objective, population, known risk, data quality, and intended inference. A targeted probe can identify issues but cannot automatically support statistical extrapolation.
What can trend analysis reveal that one audit rate cannot?
Patterns across time, locations, providers, codes, or controls can identify recurrence, outliers, improvement, deterioration, and where deeper review or resources are warranted.
What should compliance do with an external audit result?
Validate scope and findings, identify broader exposure, assign remediation, meet response obligations, inform governance, and incorporate lessons into risk assessment and future monitoring.
When is a corrective action plan truly closed?
Not when tasks are merely marked complete. Closure requires evidence that actions were implemented, responsible owners accepted them, and follow-up testing shows the control is effective.
What is the central fairness principle in compliance discipline?
Comparable conduct should receive consistent treatment across seniority, revenue, professional status, or department, subject to documented differences in facts and applicable policy.
How should disciplinary action relate to a substantiated violation?
It should be timely, proportionate to the conduct and circumstances, consistent with policy and precedent, coordinated with appropriate functions, and documented.
Why must discipline reach leaders and high performers?
Exempting influential people undermines accountability, weakens reporting culture, and signals that written standards are optional. Compliance expectations apply at every organizational level.
What follows confirmation that a worker or vendor is excluded?
Stop impermissible participation, follow policy, assess affected services and claims, coordinate timely action, document decisions, and make any required payer or regulatory reports.
What is the first control after credible noncompliance is reported?
Triage immediate harm and preserve relevant evidence while restricting access only as necessary. Avoid premature conclusions, broad disclosures, or changes that could destroy information.
What should an investigation scope document define?
State the allegations, issues, period, entities, records, witnesses, investigator authority, reporting route, and known limitations; update the scope when evidence justifies expansion or narrowing.
When should legal counsel be considered in an investigation?
When legal advice, privilege, government exposure, disclosure duties, litigation risk, or conflicts are material. Counsel's involvement does not automatically make every business fact privileged.
What makes a compliance investigation fair, objective, and discreet?
Use conflict-free investigators, test exculpatory and inculpatory evidence, document methods, protect information on a need-to-know basis, and give conclusions only the certainty the evidence supports.
When does an investigation need a subject-matter expert?
Use qualified expertise when the issue requires specialized clinical, coding, valuation, privacy, technical, statistical, or regulatory judgment beyond the investigation team's competence.
Why can remediation begin before an investigation ends?
Immediate controls may be necessary to stop ongoing harm, unsafe conduct, improper billing, evidence loss, or privacy exposure while preserving an objective inquiry into causes and scope.
What question does root-cause analysis answer after substantiation?
It asks why the control system allowed the conduct—not merely who erred—so remediation can address incentives, process design, training, oversight, technology, and accountability.
What makes a corrective action plan actionable?
Each action has an accountable owner, deadline, required evidence, risk-reduction purpose, escalation path, and effectiveness test tied to the investigation's root causes.
How should an organization choose a voluntary disclosure pathway?
With counsel, match the conduct and legal exposure to the appropriate agency protocol; preserve deadlines, quantify supported facts, avoid unsupported conclusions, and coordinate repayment obligations.
What does effective cooperation with a government inquiry require?
Preserve records, follow lawful process, coordinate through designated counsel and leaders, provide accurate timely responses, avoid obstruction or speculation, and track commitments through closure.
Frequently Asked Questions
How many questions are on the CHC exam?
The examination has 120 multiple-choice questions. CCB scores 100 of them; 20 are unidentified pretest questions. Candidates have two hours and should answer every item because scored and pretest questions are mixed together.
What score is required to pass the CHC exam?
CCB uses the criterion-referenced Angoff method to determine the minimum passing score. It does not publish one fixed percentage or raw-score cutoff that candidates can treat as the universal passing mark.
What is the current CHC blueprint?
The 100 scored questions are distributed as follows: Standards, Policies, and Procedures 11; Compliance Program Administration 19; Screening and Evaluation 6; Communication, Education, and Training 14; Monitoring, Auditing, and Internal Reporting Systems 22; Discipline for Non-compliance 8; Investigations and Remedial Measures 20.
How were 50 flashcards allocated across the CHC blueprint?
The official counts were divided by two. The resulting whole-card allocation is 6, 9, 3, 7, 11, 4, and 10 cards respectively. Only the two half-card domains differ from their exact targets, by one percentage point each.
What experience and education are needed for CHC eligibility?
The standard pathway requires one year in a full-time compliance position or 1,500 hours of direct compliance duties in the preceding two years, plus 20 approved CEUs within 12 months of testing, including at least 10 live CEUs. Completing a CCB-accredited university compliance certificate program satisfies the work-experience requirement for 24 months and the exam CEU requirement for 12 months after completion.
Does the CHC exam require employer sponsorship or HCCA membership?
No. CCB permits qualifying members and nonmembers to apply. Eligibility depends on the published experience and CEU requirements, or the accredited-university student pathway, rather than employer sponsorship or association membership.
What happens after a failed CHC attempt?
A candidate may reapply after receiving the score report if the required CEUs remain current. After two failed attempts within 180 days, the candidate must wait 180 days from the most recent exam date before applying again.
How long is the CHC certification active?
The designation is active for two years. Renewal generally requires 40 CCB-approved CEUs earned during the renewal period, including at least 20 live CEUs, together with the renewal application and applicable fee.
Explore More CCB Healthcare Compliance Certifications
Continue into nearby exams from the same family. Each card keeps practice questions, study guides, flashcards, videos, and articles in one place.
More From This Family
Videos and articles for deeper review.