Free CARN Exam Flashcards

Memorize 50 essential terms and definitions for the Certified Addictions Registered Nurse (CARN). See the term, recall the definition, then flip to check yourself.

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A patient takes prescribed oxycodone exactly as directed and has both tolerance and withdrawal. Do those two findings count toward a DSM-5-TR opioid use disorder diagnosis?

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Card 1 of 50Perform a Biopsychosocial SUD Assessment

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About These CARN Flashcards

These 50 flashcards are designed to help you memorize key terms and definitions for the Certified Addictions Registered Nurse (CARN). Each card shows a term on the front and its definition on the back—the classic flashcard format for vocabulary memorization. Use these alongside our practice questions to build both recall and comprehension.

Topics Covered

Perform a Biopsychosocial SUD Assessment8 cards
Assess Acute Care Needs of SUD Patients10 cards
Develop and Implement an Individualized Plan of Care7 cards
Educate and Promote Behavioral Change7 cards
Care Management, Treatment, and Evaluation Throughout Recovery18 cards

Complete Flashcard Reference

Review every term in this set. Open any term to reveal its definition.

A patient takes prescribed oxycodone exactly as directed and has both tolerance and withdrawal. Do those two findings count toward a DSM-5-TR opioid use disorder diagnosis?

No. DSM-5-TR excludes tolerance and withdrawal as criteria when an opioid is taken as prescribed under medical supervision. Base the diagnosis on the other nine criteria, such as craving, loss of control, failure to meet obligations, and continued use despite harm.

Which single element of the history most strongly predicts a future fatal opioid overdose?

A previous non-fatal overdose. Other high-risk markers are recent loss of tolerance after incarceration, detoxification or hospitalization, concurrent benzodiazepine, alcohol or gabapentinoid use, injection use, and using alone. Any of these should trigger take-home naloxone and overdose education.

AUDIT versus AUDIT-C: how many items does each have, and what are the screening cut-offs?

AUDIT has 10 items scored 0 to 40, and a total of 8 or more suggests hazardous or harmful drinking. AUDIT-C uses only the first three consumption items, scored 0 to 12, with a positive screen at 4 or more for men and 3 or more for women.

What does a CAGE score of 2 or more mean, and what does CAGE fail to measure?

Two or more yes answers to Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty and Eye-opener is clinically significant and warrants full assessment. CAGE screens for lifetime alcohol problems only. It does not quantify current intake or identify hazardous drinking levels, so pair it with a consumption measure.

What must the assessment document before any benzodiazepine is stopped, switched or tapered?

The exact agent, total daily dose, duration of continuous use, and every other sedating substance the patient takes. Withdrawal risk rises with dose and duration. The FDA's 2020 class-wide boxed warning covers abuse, misuse, addiction, physical dependence and withdrawal reactions, which occur even at prescribed doses.

How does DSM-5-TR separate a substance-induced mental disorder from an independent co-occurring disorder?

By persistence. Substance-induced symptoms clear as intoxication and acute withdrawal resolve. Symptoms that continue for a substantial period, roughly one month, after acute withdrawal ends, or that clearly predate substance use, indicate an independent psychiatric disorder that needs its own treatment plan.

Why is there no CIWA-Ar or COWS equivalent for stimulant withdrawal, and what should the nurse assess instead?

Stimulant withdrawal is not autonomically dangerous, so no titration scale exists. Assess the DSM-5-TR features: dysphoric mood plus fatigue, vivid unpleasant dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor change. The priority risk during the crash is suicidality, so screen for it directly and repeatedly.

What are the CUDIT-R cut-off scores?

The Cannabis Use Disorder Identification Test-Revised has 8 items scored 0 to 32. A score of 8 or more indicates hazardous cannabis use, and 12 or more suggests a possible cannabis use disorder warranting full diagnostic assessment. It is a screening tool, never a diagnosis on its own.

What do the COWS score bands mean?

The Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale has 11 items scored 0 to 48: 5 to 12 is mild, 13 to 24 moderate, 25 to 36 moderately severe, and 37 or more severe. Repeat the score at each reassessment; the trend across scores, not a single number, guides medication decisions.

Why can buprenorphine given too early trigger precipitated withdrawal?

Buprenorphine is a partial agonist with very high mu-opioid receptor affinity. Given while a full agonist still occupies receptors, it displaces that agonist and swaps full activation for partial activation, causing abrupt severe withdrawal. Prevent it by waiting for objective withdrawal signs, typically COWS 8 or higher.

A patient revived with naloxone wakes up and wants to leave immediately. What is the safety issue?

Naloxone acts for roughly 30 to 90 minutes, shorter than fentanyl, methadone and extended-release opioids. Re-sedation and respiratory depression can return once it wears off. Keep the patient under observation, be prepared to repeat dosing, and never judge safety from a single response.

How is CIWA-Ar structured, and when is the score invalid?

Ten items scored to a maximum of 67. Most protocols give a benzodiazepine at 8 to 10 or higher and reassess hourly. CIWA-Ar depends on patient self-report, so it is invalid for anyone who cannot communicate reliably, including intubated, severely delirious or acutely intoxicated patients.

Give the alcohol withdrawal timeline for tremor, hallucinosis, seizures and delirium tremens.

Tremor, anxiety and autonomic arousal begin 6 to 12 hours after the last drink. Alcoholic hallucinosis appears at 12 to 24 hours with an intact sensorium. Withdrawal seizures cluster at 12 to 48 hours. Delirium tremens, with clouded consciousness and instability, starts at 48 to 72 hours.

Why must thiamine be given before or with glucose in a patient with suspected alcohol use disorder?

Glucose metabolism consumes thiamine and can precipitate Wernicke encephalopathy in a depleted patient. Give parenteral thiamine first or simultaneously. The classic triad of confusion, ocular findings and ataxia appears in only a minority of cases, so treat on suspicion rather than waiting for all three signs.

Why is flumazenil generally avoided in a patient with chronic benzodiazepine use?

It reverses benzodiazepine effects abruptly and can precipitate seizures or status epilepticus in a physically dependent patient, especially alongside a co-ingested proconvulsant. Unlike opioid withdrawal, sedative withdrawal can be fatal. Support the airway and ventilation, then taper, rather than reversing.

A person who injects drugs presents with fever and no obvious source. What must be excluded first?

Infective endocarditis. Fever plus injection drug use is endocarditis until proven otherwise. Draw multiple sets of blood cultures before antibiotics, examine for murmur, septic emboli and skin findings, and arrange echocardiography. Also assess for skin and soft tissue infection, osteomyelitis, HIV and hepatitis C.

What is the first-line medication for severe agitation from stimulant intoxication?

A benzodiazepine. It reduces agitation, heart rate, blood pressure and temperature together. Antipsychotics alone can worsen hyperthermia and lower the seizure threshold. Cool hyperthermia actively, and avoid prolonged physical restraint, which raises temperature and the risk of rhabdomyolysis.

When does nicotine withdrawal peak in a newly admitted inpatient?

Symptoms start within 24 hours, peak at 2 to 3 days, and largely settle over 2 to 4 weeks. Irritability, anxiety, poor concentration, restlessness and increased appetite are often misread as anxiety or non-adherence. Offer nicotine replacement early in the admission rather than waiting to be asked.

What determines the ASAM level of care for a patient?

A six-dimension assessment. The ASAM Criteria 4th edition (2023) dimensions are intoxication, withdrawal and addiction medications; biomedical and physical functioning; psychiatric and cognitive functioning; substance use-related risks; recovery environment interactions; and person-centered considerations. Readiness to change is no longer a separate dimension. Recommend the least intensive level that safely meets the needs found across all six.

How long must a patient be opioid-free before extended-release injectable naltrexone?

Seven to ten days. Naltrexone is a full opioid antagonist, so giving it while opioids still occupy receptors precipitates severe withdrawal. Confirm abstinence by history, urine testing and, where protocol allows, a naloxone challenge. This waiting period is a common reason patients start buprenorphine instead.

Which two medications are first-line for alcohol use disorder, and how do they differ in elimination?

Naltrexone and acamprosate. Naltrexone is metabolized hepatically and blocks opioid receptors, so it is avoided with current opioid use or planned opioid analgesia. Acamprosate is cleared renally, making it safer in significant liver disease but requiring dose reduction or avoidance in renal impairment.

What must a patient understand before disulfiram is prescribed?

Disulfiram blocks aldehyde dehydrogenase, so drinking causes flushing, throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, tachycardia and hypotension. It requires abstinence before the first dose and strong motivation, ideally with supervised dosing. Warn about hidden alcohol in mouthwash, cough syrup, sauces and topical preparations.

How is a benzodiazepine taper planned for someone on long-term daily doses?

Gradually and by agreement, commonly reducing 5 to 10 percent of the dose every one to four weeks and slowing further near the end. Consider converting to a longer-acting agent for steadier levels. Do not begin a taper during an acute crisis, and never stop abruptly.

Integrated, sequential or parallel treatment for co-occurring substance use and mental illness?

Integrated. One team treats both conditions at the same time, in the same setting, under a single plan. Sequential care that requires stabilizing one problem first, and parallel care in unlinked systems, both produce dropout and worse outcomes. Integrated treatment is the SAMHSA standard.

What is the most effective treatment for stimulant use disorder?

Contingency management, which provides escalating tangible incentives for objectively verified stimulant-negative results. No medication is FDA-approved for cocaine or methamphetamine use disorder. Combine contingency management with cognitive behavioral therapy or the Matrix Model, and treat co-occurring conditions alongside it.

What are the essential teaching points for take-home naloxone?

Recognize the signs: unresponsiveness, slow or absent breathing, blue lips. Call 911, give naloxone, provide rescue breaths, repeat the dose after 2 to 3 minutes if there is no response, place the person on their side, and stay until help arrives. Nasal naloxone is available over the counter.

Why is the period right after leaving detox, residential treatment or jail the highest-risk time for overdose?

Opioid tolerance falls within days of abstinence while the familiar dose does not change. Returning to a pre-abstinence amount then causes fatal respiratory depression. Teach that the old dose is no longer safe, start medication for opioid use disorder before discharge, and send naloxone home.

What counts as one US standard drink?

Fourteen grams of pure alcohol. That equals 12 ounces of regular beer at about 5 percent, 5 ounces of table wine at about 12 percent, or 1.5 ounces of 80-proof spirits at 40 percent. Craft beers, large pours and mixed drinks often contain several standard drinks each.

State the NIAAA definitions of binge drinking and heavy drinking.

Binge drinking brings blood alcohol to about 0.08 percent, typically 4 or more drinks for women and 5 or more for men within about 2 hours. Heavy drinking is 4 or more per day or 8 or more per week for women, and 5 per day or 15 per week for men.

A patient with depression and alcohol use disorder says they are not ready to stop. What does OARS look like here?

Open questions, Affirmations, Reflective listening, Summaries. Resist the righting reflex of arguing for change. Explore ambivalence, reflect change talk when it appears, and use importance and confidence rulers. Motivational interviewing moves through engaging, focusing, evoking and planning, so planning comes last.

How should the nurse respond to a patient with methamphetamine use disorder who declines treatment?

Stay engaged rather than closing the conversation. Offer harm reduction now: safer-use supplies, fentanyl test strips, naloxone, hydration, sleep, wound and dental care, and HIV and hepatitis C testing. Ask permission before giving information, and leave the door open. Engagement predicts later treatment entry.

A patient reports cyclic vomiting relieved only by long hot showers. What should they be taught?

This pattern suggests cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome. Topical capsaicin and antipsychotics such as haloperidol or droperidol relieve acute episodes better than standard antiemetics. The only definitive treatment is stopping cannabis; symptoms usually settle within days to weeks and return if use resumes. Compulsive hot bathing is a diagnostic clue, not a cure.

How many methadone take-home doses does 42 CFR Part 8 allow by time in treatment?

Up to 7 take-home doses during days 1 to 14, up to 14 doses from day 15, and up to 28 doses from day 31. The 2024 final rule made the COVID-era flexibilities permanent. Within each ceiling the number is the practitioner's documented clinical judgment, not a fixed entitlement.

Who may prescribe buprenorphine for opioid use disorder now?

Any clinician holding a DEA registration that includes Schedule III authority. The Consolidated Appropriations Act of 2023 eliminated the DATA 2000 X-waiver and its patient caps. A one-time eight-hour training on treating substance use disorders is now attached to DEA registration and renewal instead.

What is the Eat, Sleep, Console approach to neonatal opioid withdrawal?

A function-based assessment asking whether the infant can eat, sleep and be consoled, prioritizing rooming-in, breastfeeding when not contraindicated, low stimulation and parent presence before medication. In the multicenter ESC-NOW trial, infants were medically ready for discharge about 6.7 days sooner than with Finnegan-based usual care.

How is opioid use disorder managed during pregnancy?

With methadone or buprenorphine, continued throughout pregnancy and postpartum. Medically supervised withdrawal is not recommended because return to use is common and carries overdose and fetal risk. Doses often need to rise in the third trimester. Expected neonatal withdrawal is not a reason to stop treatment.

What is the single most important outcome measure for a patient on medication for opioid use disorder?

Retention in treatment. Time on methadone or buprenorphine roughly halves all-cause and overdose mortality, and risk climbs sharply in the weeks after stopping. Judge progress by continued engagement and function, and treat a positive urine screen as a reason to intensify support, not to discharge.

Symptom-triggered or fixed-schedule benzodiazepine dosing for alcohol withdrawal?

Symptom-triggered dosing guided by repeated CIWA-Ar scores. It uses less total benzodiazepine and shortens treatment compared with fixed schedules, without losing safety. Fixed dosing still has a role when reliable scoring is impossible, such as an intubated patient or one with a withdrawal seizure history.

Which benzodiazepines are preferred in significant liver disease or frail older adults?

Lorazepam, oxazepam and temazepam. These three are cleared by glucuronidation alone, with no oxidative phase-one metabolism and no active metabolites, so they do not accumulate when hepatic function is impaired. Long-acting chlordiazepoxide and diazepam can build up dangerously in the same patients.

What is the abstinence violation effect, and how should the nurse reframe it?

In Marlatt's relapse prevention model, one lapse triggers guilt and a belief that the failure is total and personal, which drives a full return to use. Reframe the lapse as a discrete situational event with a learnable trigger, then rehearse a concrete plan for the next high-risk situation.

How do Alcoholics Anonymous and SMART Recovery differ?

AA is a peer fellowship built on twelve steps, sponsorship and reliance on a higher power as each member understands it. SMART Recovery is secular and uses cognitive behavioral and motivational tools in a four-point program. Offer both, and match options to the patient's beliefs rather than assuming.

Why does concurrent gabapentinoid and opioid use raise overdose risk?

Gabapentin and pregabalin add central nervous system and respiratory depression to opioid effects, and the combination is associated with higher opioid-related mortality. They are also misused to potentiate opioids. Several states have scheduled gabapentin as a controlled substance and require prescription monitoring reporting.

What do the Beers Criteria say about benzodiazepines and Z-drugs in adults 65 and older?

Avoid them. Older adults are more sensitive and clear these drugs more slowly, and both classes raise the risk of falls, fractures, delirium and motor vehicle crashes. Z-drugs such as zolpidem carry similar risks without better outcomes. Prefer cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia.

Is active drug use a reason to defer hepatitis C treatment?

No. AASLD and IDSA guidance recommends treating everyone with hepatitis C, including people who currently inject drugs. Direct-acting antivirals cure well over 95 percent in 8 to 12 weeks, reinfection is manageable, and treating this group also reduces onward transmission. Pair treatment with syringe services.

How does 42 CFR Part 2 differ from HIPAA?

Part 2 gives added protection to records from federally assisted substance use disorder programs. The 2024 final rule, with compliance required from February 16, 2026, aligns it with HIPAA: one written consent can cover all future treatment, payment and health care operations, and HIPAA-covered recipients may redisclose under HIPAA. Records still cannot be used against the patient in legal proceedings without consent or a court order.

What is cocaethylene and why does it matter?

When cocaine and alcohol are used together, the liver forms cocaethylene, an active metabolite with a longer half-life than cocaine and greater cardiotoxicity. The combination raises the risk of myocardial infarction, arrhythmia and sudden death. Always ask about alcohol when assessing cocaine use.

What long-term physical complications should be monitored in methamphetamine use disorder?

Methamphetamine-associated cardiomyopathy and pulmonary hypertension, which can present as fatigue, breathlessness or edema in a young patient and warrant echocardiography. Also monitor severe dental disease, weight loss, skin-picking lesions, cognitive impairment, and psychosis that persists after use stops.

Why does naloxone appear not to work in some overdoses involving xylazine?

Xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist, not an opioid, so naloxone cannot reverse its sedation. Give naloxone anyway, because fentanyl is almost always present too, then support ventilation until the person recovers. Xylazine also causes severe necrotic wounds away from injection sites that need active wound care.

Does DSM-5-TR recognize cannabis withdrawal?

Yes. After heavy prolonged use stops, symptoms appear within about a week: irritability or anger, nervousness, sleep difficulty with vivid dreams, decreased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, and a physical symptom such as abdominal pain, tremor, sweating, fever, chills or headache. It peaks in the first week.

Which tobacco pharmacotherapy is most effective, and what happened to varenicline's boxed warning?

Varenicline is the most effective single agent. Combination nicotine replacement, a patch plus a short-acting form such as gum or lozenge, beats single-form NRT and performs about as well as varenicline. The FDA removed varenicline's boxed warning for serious neuropsychiatric events in December 2016 after the EAGLES trial found no significant excess risk.

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are on the CARN exam and how long do I get?

The CARN examination is 150 multiple-choice questions delivered by computer-based testing, with a three-hour time limit. About 25 of the 150 items are experimental pilot questions that are not scored; they are included to validate items for future exams. There is no penalty for guessing, and no calculator is needed. Passing requires answering 75% of the test items correctly, a standard set by the Angoff procedure rather than by ranking candidates against each other.

What is the CARN pass rate?

ANCB publishes exam volumes and pass rates on its Stats & Studies page. The published 2025 CARN pass rate is 70%, from 150 passes out of 213 CARN exams across the two 2025 reporting periods. The CARN-AP pass rate for the same year is 68%. Pass rates have been reported by half-year period since 2021, and CARN exam volume has grown from 154 exams in 2021 to 213 in 2025.

What does the 2026 CARN blueprint cover?

The blueprint implemented in 2026 is a grid with two axes. Patient problems are opioid use disorder 27%, alcohol use disorders 25%, stimulant use disorders 15%, co-occurring psychiatric and comorbid medical disorders 12%, medication misuse 10%, cannabinoids and other hallucinogens 6%, and tobacco use disorder 5%. Domains of practice are care management, treatment and evaluation throughout the recovery continuum 35%, assessing acute care needs 20%, and biopsychosocial assessment, individualized care planning, and education and behavioral change at 15% each.

Who is eligible to sit for the CARN exam?

Candidates need a current, full and unrestricted RN license, verified by NCLEX or by CGFNS, WES or ERES equivalency for internationally educated nurses. They must attest to at least 2,000 hours, about one year, of supervised direct-contact nursing practice with people and families affected by addictions or dual diagnoses, earned within the last three years. They also need 30 continuing education contact hours from the last three years, at least 51% of them specific to addictions nursing.

What happens if I fail the CARN exam?

C-NET emails an automated rescheduling link that lets you book a retake without submitting a new application. Under accreditation rules the link is sent no sooner than 30 days after your last test date and may be used once. A new link is issued after each unsuccessful attempt for up to one year from the date of your original application. After that year you must submit a new application to qualify for further retakes.

How long is CARN certification valid and how do I renew it?

Certification lasts four years from the date you pass, as long as you keep a current RN license. Recertify by documenting 2,000 hours of addictions-related nursing experience during the four-year period plus 60 continuing education hours, at least 51% of them specific to addictions nursing, or by passing the current examination again. If certification lapses there is a three-month grace period with a late fee, after which only reapplying and retesting will restore the credential.

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