NREP REP Registered Environmental Professional

Under ASTM E1527-21, what is the maximum viability period of a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment (ESA) for it to qualify for CERCLA All Appropriate Inquiries (AAI) landowner liability protections?

• A90 days from date of first completion task
• B180 days with prescribed updates for certain components
• COne year with no update requirements
• DTwo years provided the site has not changed

Which of the following is the correct definition of a Recognized Environmental Condition (REC) under ASTM E1527-21?

• AAny historical use of hazardous substances regardless of current site status
• BThe presence or likely presence of hazardous substances or petroleum products in, on, or…
• CContamination that has been fully remediated and closed by the regulatory agency
• DDe minimis conditions that do not pose a material risk of exposure

A Phase I ESA identifies historical soil contamination from a former underground storage tank that was removed in 1995. Soil samples confirmed contamination exceeded state cleanup standards at the time. The site received a No Further Action letter with a deed restriction prohibiting residential use and requiring maintenance of a vapor barrier. What is the appropriate classification under ASTM E1527-21?

• ARecognized Environmental Condition (REC)
• BHistorical Recognized Environmental Condition (HREC)
• CControlled Recognized Environmental Condition (CREC)
• DDe minimis condition

Under the EPA AAI rule (40 CFR Part 312), which of the following must the environmental professional include in the Phase I ESA declaration?

• AA guarantee that no contamination exists on the property
• BA statement of qualifications and a declaration that the assessment meets the definition…
• CA certified laboratory report from site sampling
• DAn ASTM membership number

Historical land use research for a Phase I ESA under ASTM E1527-21 must extend back to what point in time?

• AThe past 20 years only
• BThe year 1940 only
• CThe property's first developed use or back to 1940, whichever is earlier
• DThe past 50 years regardless of development history

During a Phase II ESA, a Data Quality Objective (DQO) process is used to:

• ASelect the lowest-cost laboratory
• BDefine the type, quantity, and quality of data needed to support defensible decisions
• CDetermine which contaminants are regulated
• DEliminate the need for a QA/QC plan

The Method Detection Limit (MDL) is best defined as:

• AThe lowest concentration at which the laboratory routinely reports results
• BThe minimum concentration of a substance that can be measured and reported with 99% confi…
• CThe cleanup goal set by the regulator
• DThe concentration at which human health effects occur

A baseline human health risk assessment under EPA Risk Assessment Guidance for Superfund (RAGS) follows which four-step framework?

• APlanning, execution, review, and closure
• BData collection/evaluation, exposure assessment, toxicity assessment, and risk characteri…
• CHazard identification, mitigation, verification, and monitoring
• DSource, pathway, receptor, and control

For a non-carcinogenic chemical exposure, the Hazard Quotient (HQ) is calculated as:

• AExposure dose divided by the reference dose (RfD)
• BCancer slope factor multiplied by exposure dose
• CExposure concentration divided by the LC50
• DMDL divided by the regulatory limit

An incremental lifetime cancer risk of 3 × 10⁻⁵ for a site means:

• A3 out of 1,000 exposed individuals will develop cancer
• B3 out of 100,000 additional cancer cases are estimated over a lifetime of exposure
• CThe site poses no cancer risk
• D3% of exposed individuals will develop cancer

EPA Regional Screening Levels (RSLs) are:

• AEnforceable cleanup standards
• BRisk-based concentrations used as initial screening benchmarks; exceedance does not autom…
• CMaximum contaminant levels (MCLs) for drinking water
• DEmission limits for air pollutants

Which remediation technology is most appropriate for a dissolved chlorinated solvent plume (TCE/PCE) in a fractured bedrock aquifer?

• AExcavation and off-site disposal
• BAir stripping via soil vapor extraction (SVE)
• CIn Situ Chemical Oxidation (ISCO) or Enhanced Reductive Dechlorination (ERD)
• DThermal desorption

A Multi-Phase Extraction (MPE) system is most appropriately selected for:

• ARecovery of LNAPL and dissolved-phase contamination in low-permeability soils with a shal…
• BPassive diffusion sampling of groundwater
• CStormwater management
• DAir pollution control

For petroleum hydrocarbon contamination in the vadose zone, which combination of technologies is most effective?

• APump-and-treat with granular activated carbon
• BSoil Vapor Extraction (SVE) combined with Air Sparging (AS)
• CPhytoremediation alone
• DPermeable Reactive Barrier (PRB)

Under NEPA, which of the following best describes 'tiering' in environmental documentation?

• ARanking alternatives by cost
• BPreparing a broad EIS for a program and subsequent narrower EISs/EAs for specific actions…
• CAssigning NEPA review to contractors by qualification level
• DStacking mitigation measures sequentially

A cumulative impact analysis under NEPA must consider:

• AOnly the direct impacts of the proposed action
• BThe incremental impact of the action when added to past, present, and reasonably foreseea…
• COnly impacts within the project footprint
• DOnly impacts occurring during construction

The 'No Action Alternative' in a NEPA EIS must:

• ABe omitted if it is infeasible
• BBe analyzed as a baseline for comparison against action alternatives, regardless of wheth…
• COnly be included at the agency's discretion
• DAlways be the preferred alternative

Mitigation measures adopted in a NEPA Record of Decision (ROD) to reduce significant impacts should be:

• ARecommended but non-binding
• BDocumented in a mitigation monitoring and enforcement plan with performance standards and…
• CImplemented only if funding remains after project construction
• DDelegated to the contractor without agency oversight

Under the California Environmental Quality Act (CEQA), the functional equivalent of a federal EIS is called:

• ACategorical Exclusion (CatEx)
• BEnvironmental Impact Report (EIR)
• CEnvironmental Assessment (EA)
• DFinding of No Significant Impact (FONSI)

New York's State Environmental Quality Review Act (SEQR) requires a positive declaration (Pos Dec) when:

• AThe action has no potential significant environmental impacts
• BThe action is categorically excluded
• CThe lead agency determines that the proposed action may have one or more significant adve…
• DA private entity requests it

Under the EPA Greenhouse Gas Reporting Program (40 CFR Part 98), which annual emissions threshold triggers mandatory reporting for most source categories?

• A1,000 metric tons CO2e per year
• B10,000 metric tons CO2e per year
• C25,000 metric tons CO2e per year
• D100,000 metric tons CO2e per year

The SEC climate-related disclosure rules require registrants to disclose:

• AOnly product-level carbon footprints
• BMaterial climate-related risks, governance, strategy, risk management, metrics, and for a…
• COnly Scope 3 supply chain emissions
• DOnly physical climate risks, not transition risks

The Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TCFD) framework is organized around four thematic pillars. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

• AGovernance
• BStrategy
• CRisk Management
• DStakeholder Engagement

The Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Standards differ from SASB Standards primarily in that:

• AGRI focuses on financial materiality while SASB focuses on impact materiality
• BGRI addresses impact materiality (effect on people/environment) while SASB addresses fina…
• CGRI is mandatory while SASB is voluntary
• DThey are functionally identical frameworks

Scope 2 emissions under the GHG Protocol are:

• ADirect emissions from owned/controlled sources
• BIndirect emissions from purchased electricity, steam, heating, and cooling
• CAll other indirect emissions in the value chain
• DEmissions from refrigerants only

Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) laws require:

• AProducers to fund or operate end-of-life management of their products
• BConsumers to pay disposal fees at point of sale only
• CMunicipalities to bear all recycling costs
• DManufacturers to stop producing certain products

The circular economy principle of 'designing out waste' at the top of the waste hierarchy is BEST demonstrated by:

• AIncineration with energy recovery
• BLandfilling of non-recyclable residues
• CMaterial substitution for recyclability and modular design for disassembly
• DSending to a waste-to-energy facility

A site investigation at an industrial facility detects trichloroethylene (TCE) in groundwater at 45 µg/L. The federal MCL for TCE is 5 µg/L. Which statement is most accurate?

• AThe concentration is safe for all uses
• BThe concentration exceeds the federal drinking water MCL by a factor of 9, warranting eva…
• CThe MCL only applies if the groundwater is currently used for drinking
• DTCE is not federally regulated

A multi-media compliance strategy for a manufacturing facility should integrate requirements under which of the following major statutes?

• AOnly the Clean Air Act
• BOnly RCRA
• CCAA, CWA, RCRA, TSCA, EPCRA, and applicable state programs
• DOnly CERCLA

A Phase I ESA identifies an adjacent (off-site) dry cleaner that operated from 1965-1998 as a potential vapor intrusion source. What is the environmental professional's most appropriate action?

• AIgnore the off-site source since it is not on the subject property
• BIdentify it as a vapor encroachment condition (VEC) or REC (as appropriate) and recommend…
• CDemand the adjacent owner conduct cleanup
• DDisregard it because the business has closed

The Environmental Professional definition under 40 CFR 312.10 requires:

• AA PE license only
• BA bachelor's degree plus 5 years of relevant experience, or other specified combinations…
• CA PhD in environmental science
• DNo specific qualifications

A sampling plan for a suspected petroleum release at a former UST site should specify which QA/QC element to ensure data defensibility?

• ANo field duplicates needed
• BField duplicates, matrix spike/matrix spike duplicates (MS/MSD), trip blanks for VOCs, an…
• COnly lab blanks
• DOnly one sample per site

In an exposure assessment, the Reasonable Maximum Exposure (RME) represents:

• AThe average exposure expected across a population
• BThe highest exposure that is reasonably expected to occur at a site
• CThe minimum exposure necessary to cause harm
• DThe exposure of workers only

A vapor intrusion risk assessment relies heavily on:

• AOnly groundwater concentrations
• BPaired multi-media data (groundwater, sub-slab soil gas, indoor air) evaluated against at…
• COnly a single indoor air sample
• DColor of the soil

In Situ Chemical Oxidation (ISCO) using sodium persulfate activated with alkali or chelated iron is most appropriate for treating:

• AHeavy metals in soil
• BChlorinated solvents, BTEX, and some PAHs in the saturated zone
• CRadionuclides
• DAsbestos in building materials

Dehalococcoides (Dhc) bacteria are critical for:

• AAerobic degradation of petroleum hydrocarbons
• BComplete reductive dechlorination of PCE and TCE to ethene
• CMercury methylation
• DNitrate reduction only

In Situ Thermal Remediation (ISTR) technologies such as Electrical Resistance Heating (ERH) or Thermal Conductive Heating (TCH) are most suitable for:

• ADispersed low-concentration groundwater plumes
• BDNAPL source zones and high-concentration residual contamination in tight soils
• CLandfill gas control
• DPassive mitigation of vapor intrusion

A Permeable Reactive Barrier (PRB) using zero-valent iron (ZVI) treats groundwater by:

• AAdsorption only
• BAbiotic reductive dechlorination of chlorinated solvents and precipitation/reduction of r…
• CAerobic oxidation
• DIon exchange

Under NEPA, a Categorical Exclusion (CatEx) is appropriate when:

• AThe project has significant environmental impacts
• BThe action is one a Federal agency has determined normally does not have a significant ef…
• CThe project is opposed by the public
• DThe agency has insufficient resources

Under the Clean Water Act Section 404, a permit is generally required for:

• AStormwater discharges from industrial facilities
• BDischarge of dredged or fill material into waters of the United States, including wetlands
• CAir emissions from combustion sources
• DHazardous waste generation

The EPA Clean Air Act Title V operating permit program applies to:

• AOnly federal facilities
• BMajor sources of criteria pollutants, hazardous air pollutants, and certain other regulat…
• CResidential furnaces
• DOnly electric utilities

Under RCRA, a Large Quantity Generator (LQG) is one that generates:

• ALess than 100 kg/month of hazardous waste
• BBetween 100 and 1,000 kg/month
• CGreater than or equal to 1,000 kg/month of hazardous waste, or greater than 1 kg/month of…
• DNo specific threshold

The CERCLA landowner liability protection known as the 'Bona Fide Prospective Purchaser' (BFPP) defense requires:

• ANo due diligence before purchase
• BAll Appropriate Inquiries before purchase, disposal occurring before acquisition, plus po…
• COnly an updated Phase I after purchase
• DState-level registration only

A Monitored Natural Attenuation (MNA) remedy must be supported by multiple lines of evidence including:

• AOnly stable or decreasing contaminant trends
• BDemonstration of contaminant mass reduction, geochemical indicators of attenuation proces…
• CA single groundwater sampling event
• DComputer modeling alone

Activity and Use Limitations (AULs) and institutional controls are used to:

• AReplace the need for remediation
• BSupplement engineering controls by legally restricting land use or requiring actions that…
• COnly document past contamination
• DTransfer liability to new owners

For Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS), EPA's 2024 National Primary Drinking Water Regulation (40 CFR 141) established MCLs of:

• A100 µg/L for all PFAS
• B4.0 ng/L (ppt) for PFOA and PFOS, with Hazard Index limits for PFHxS, PFNA, HFPO-DA (GenX…
• C1 mg/L for all PFAS
• DNo federal regulation exists

A SPCC Plan under 40 CFR Part 112 is required when:

• AAny amount of oil is stored
• BAn onshore non-transportation-related facility has aggregate aboveground oil storage capa…
• COnly refineries are subject
• DOnly if a spill has occurred

Under EPCRA Section 313, the Toxic Release Inventory (TRI) reporting threshold for a non-PBT chemical is generally:

• A1 pound manufactured, processed, or otherwise used
• B25,000 pounds manufactured/processed OR 10,000 pounds otherwise used per year
• CNo threshold — all facilities must report
• D1 million pounds