NREP REM Registered Environmental Manager

Under the Clean Air Act, which of the following is NOT one of the six NAAQS criteria pollutants?

• ASulfur dioxide (SO2)
• BCarbon dioxide (CO2)
• CParticulate matter (PM2.5/PM10)
• DOzone (O3)

Which Clean Air Act program requires major sources of air pollutants to obtain a federally enforceable operating permit that consolidates all applicable requirements?

• ATitle I New Source Review
• BTitle IV Acid Rain Program
• CTitle V Operating Permits
• DTitle VI Stratospheric Ozone

NESHAP standards under Section 112 of the Clean Air Act regulate:

• ACriteria pollutants from mobile sources
• BHazardous air pollutants (HAPs) from stationary sources
• CGreenhouse gas emissions from power plants
• DOzone depleting substances

A new major stationary source is proposed in an attainment area for NOx. Which CAA permitting program applies?

• ANonattainment New Source Review (NNSR) with LAER
• BPrevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) with BACT
• CTitle V operating permit only
• DNo permit is required in attainment areas

New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) under CAA Section 111 apply to:

• AOnly existing sources constructed before 1970
• BNew, modified, or reconstructed sources in specific industrial categories
• COnly mobile sources such as cars and trucks
• DIndoor air quality in federal buildings

Which document describes how a state will achieve and maintain the NAAQS within its borders?

• AState Implementation Plan (SIP)
• BFederal Implementation Plan (FIP)
• CRegional Haze Plan
• DTitle V Permit Program

The primary NAAQS are established to protect:

• AEconomic interests of regulated industries
• BPublic health with an adequate margin of safety, including sensitive populations
• CProperty, materials, and visibility only
• DAgricultural crops from pollutant damage

A facility in an attainment area emits 95 tons per year of NOx. To trigger PSD as a major source in most source categories, what is the emissions threshold?

• A10 tons/year
• B25 tons/year
• C100 tons/year for listed source categories, 250 tons/year otherwise
• D1,000 tons/year

Under CAA Section 112(r), which facilities must develop a Risk Management Plan (RMP)?

• AAll facilities with any hazardous chemical on site
• BFacilities with more than 500 pounds of any OSHA-listed chemical
• CFacilities with regulated substances above specified threshold quantities
• DOnly Title V major sources

The Clean Water Act's primary mechanism for controlling point-source pollutant discharges to waters of the United States is:

• AThe Safe Drinking Water Act MCL program
• BThe National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)
• CThe Underground Injection Control (UIC) program
• DThe Oil Pollution Act (OPA) program

What is the key difference between an NPDES individual permit and a general permit?

• AIndividual permits are free; general permits require a fee
• BIndividual permits are site-specific; general permits cover categories of similar dischar…
• CGeneral permits are for federal facilities only
• DIndividual permits expire in 1 year; general permits never expire

An MS4 under the Clean Water Act refers to:

• AMunicipal Separate Storm Sewer System
• BMajor Stationary Source, Category 4
• CMulti-Sector Stormwater Permit
• DMaximum Safe Discharge Standard

Under 40 CFR 112 (SPCC), which facilities must prepare a Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure Plan?

• AFacilities that store any quantity of hazardous waste
• BNon-transportation-related facilities with aboveground oil storage capacity over 1,320 ga…
• COnly petroleum refineries
• DAny facility with more than 55 gallons of oil

Which of the following would be regulated under the Safe Drinking Water Act's Underground Injection Control (UIC) program?

• ASurface discharge from a wastewater treatment plant
• BDeep well injection of hazardous waste (Class I well)
• CEmissions from a coal-fired power plant
• DRunoff from a construction site

Under the Safe Drinking Water Act, the difference between primary and secondary MCLs is:

• APrimary MCLs are federal; secondary MCLs are state-only
• BPrimary MCLs are enforceable and protect public health; secondary MCLs are non-enforceabl…
• CPrimary MCLs apply to public water systems; secondary to private wells
• DSecondary MCLs are stricter than primary

Under RCRA, how is hazardous waste formally defined?

• AAny waste a generator considers dangerous
• BSolid waste that is either listed or exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste
• COnly liquids, sludges, and gases
• DWaste that OSHA classifies as hazardous

A Large Quantity Generator (LQG) may accumulate hazardous waste on-site in a central accumulation area for up to:

• A30 days
• B90 days
• C180 days
• D270 days

The RCRA Land Disposal Restrictions (LDR) program requires that hazardous wastes:

• ANever be placed on or in the land under any circumstances
• BMeet specified treatment standards before land disposal
• COnly be disposed of in Class I UIC wells
• DBe incinerated within 90 days of generation

Which RCRA characteristic hazardous waste code corresponds to ignitability?

• AD001
• BD002
• CD003
• DD004

A Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest must be retained by a generator for at least:

• A1 year
• B3 years after the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter
• C5 years
• DPermanently

Which of the following is an example of a RCRA 'listed' hazardous waste?

• AA waste solvent from degreasing operations (F001)
• BA waste failing the TCLP for lead
• CA waste with a flashpoint of 100°F
• DA corrosive liquid with pH of 1

Under RCRA, satellite accumulation areas (SAAs) allow accumulation of up to:

• A55 gallons of hazardous waste or 1 quart of acute hazardous waste at or near the point of…
• B275 gallons of hazardous waste
• CUnlimited quantities with no time limit
• DOnly as much as generated in 30 days

CERCLA, also known as Superfund, was enacted primarily to:

• ARegulate permit requirements for active hazardous waste management
• BProvide response authority and liability for cleanup of releases of hazardous substances…
• CSet drinking water standards
• DRegulate point source discharges

The sequence of steps that leads to a site being listed on the National Priorities List (NPL) is:

• APreliminary Assessment/Site Inspection → HRS scoring → Proposed NPL → Final NPL
• BRecord of Decision → Remedial Investigation → NPL listing
• CEmergency removal → Long-term remedial → NPL listing
• DFive-year review → NPL listing

Under CERCLA, which party category is NOT a Potentially Responsible Party (PRP)?

• ACurrent owner or operator of a facility
• BPast owner/operator at the time of disposal
• CArranger who arranged for disposal or treatment of hazardous substances
• DA contractor who performed a Phase I ESA on the property

The National Contingency Plan (NCP) serves as the:

• AFederal emergency medical services response plan
• BBlueprint for responding to oil spills and hazardous substance releases under CERCLA and…
• CState-level emergency planning document
• DOSHA's respiratory protection standard

A CERCLA Remedial Investigation/Feasibility Study (RI/FS) is typically followed by:

• AA Record of Decision (ROD) selecting the remedy
• BA Notice of Violation (NOV)
• CThe facility receiving a new RCRA permit
• DImmediate removal of all contamination

To qualify for the Bona Fide Prospective Purchaser (BFPP) defense under CERCLA, a party must:

• ANever visit the property before purchase
• BConduct 'all appropriate inquiries' (typically an ASTM E1527 Phase I ESA) before acquisit…
• CBe a federal agency
• DOwn the property for more than 20 years

The primary goal of the EPA Brownfields program is to:

• AAdd more sites to the Superfund NPL
• BPrevent any redevelopment of contaminated properties
• CProvide funding and tools to assess, clean up, and redevelop lightly-to-moderately contam…
• DRequire federal takeover of contaminated urban land

RCRA Subtitle D primarily regulates:

• AHazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal
• BUnderground storage tanks
• CNonhazardous solid waste, including municipal solid waste landfills
• DUsed oil management

Under 40 CFR Part 280 (federal UST regulations), a regulated UST is generally one that stores:

• AOnly hazardous waste
• BOnly drinking water
• CPetroleum or CERCLA hazardous substances with at least 10% of the combined tank/piping vo…
• DAny liquid at any depth

Which of the following is a required release detection method for petroleum USTs under 40 CFR 280?

• AAnnual visual inspection only
• BOne of the approved methods such as automatic tank gauging, statistical inventory reconci…
• CManual dipstick readings only
• DChecking invoices against deliveries

The difference between 40 CFR 280 and 40 CFR 281 is that:

• APart 280 is federal UST technical requirements; Part 281 sets criteria for state program…
• BPart 280 is for aboveground tanks; Part 281 is for underground tanks
• CPart 280 is for hazardous waste; Part 281 is for petroleum
• DThere is no difference

Under EPCRA, Tier II reports must be submitted by facilities that store hazardous chemicals above reporting thresholds by what date each year?

• AJanuary 1
• BMarch 1
• CJuly 1
• DDecember 31

The EPCRA Toxic Release Inventory (TRI) Form R annual report is due by:

• AMarch 1
• BApril 15
• CJuly 1
• DDecember 31

Under EPCRA Section 304, a facility with a release of a reportable quantity (RQ) of a CERCLA hazardous substance or EHS must notify:

• AOnly the facility's attorney
• BThe National Response Center (for CERCLA) and/or SERC and LEPC (for EPCRA), as applicable…
• COnly the local newspaper
• DOSHA only

Before manufacturing or importing a new chemical substance not on the TSCA Inventory, a company must submit:

• AA Pre-Manufacture Notice (PMN) to EPA at least 90 days in advance
• BA Risk Management Plan to OSHA
• CAn Environmental Impact Statement
• DA Tier II form

The TSCA Inventory is:

• AA list of hazardous wastes under RCRA
• BA list of chemical substances manufactured or imported in the United States under TSCA
• CThe NAAQS criteria pollutants
• DA roster of Superfund sites

A Significant New Use Rule (SNUR) under TSCA Section 5 is triggered when:

• AAny chemical is used
• BEPA determines that a specific use of an existing chemical may warrant additional review,…
• CA chemical is added to the NPL
• DOSHA sets a new PEL

NEPA applies to:

• AAll private business activities
• BMajor federal actions significantly affecting the quality of the human environment
• COnly Department of Defense activities
• DOnly state-level projects

Under NEPA, the correct order of environmental review decisions (from least to most intensive analysis) is:

• ACategorical Exclusion → Environmental Assessment (with FONSI or EIS) → Environmental Impa…
• BROD → EIS → EA → Categorical Exclusion
• CEIS → EA → Categorical Exclusion
• DFONSI → EIS → Categorical Exclusion

A Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI) is issued when:

• AAn EIS has been completed
• BAn Environmental Assessment concludes that the action will not have a significant environ…
• CA project is denied entirely
• DA Categorical Exclusion applies

The ISO 14001 standard is best described as:

• AA US regulatory requirement for all manufacturers
• BAn internationally recognized framework for Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
• CA product labeling standard
• DA chemical toxicity testing protocol

Within an ISO 14001 EMS, an 'environmental aspect' is:

• AAny employee with environmental responsibility
• BAn element of an organization's activities, products, or services that can interact with…
• CThe physical fence around a facility
• DAn external auditor

The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle of ISO 14001 emphasizes:

• AOne-time compliance audits
• BContinual improvement through iterative planning, implementation, monitoring, and correct…
• CEliminating all environmental risks
• DOutsourcing environmental management

An internal EMS audit differs from a third-party (certification) audit in that:

• AInternal audits are optional under ISO 14001; third-party audits are mandatory
• BInternal audits are conducted by the organization (or on its behalf) to verify EMS confor…
• CThird-party audits only review safety
• DInternal audits always find more findings

Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), employers must:

• ANever disclose chemical identity
• BMaintain Safety Data Sheets (SDSs), label containers per GHS, and train employees on haza…
• CTest every chemical for carcinogenicity
• DOnly use chemicals approved by EPA

HAZWOPER (29 CFR 1910.120) applies primarily to:

• AAll office workers
• BWorkers engaged in hazardous-waste site cleanup, treatment/storage/disposal operations, a…
• COnly demolition contractors
• DOnly respirator users