NREP CEA Certified Environmental Auditor

Which federal law establishes national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS) for criteria pollutants and requires major stationary sources to obtain operating permits?

• AClean Water Act (CWA)
• BClean Air Act (CAA)
• CResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
• DToxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)

Under RCRA, which generator category is subject to a 90-day accumulation time limit and must comply with full LQG standards?

• AVery Small Quantity Generator (VSQG) generating ≤100 kg/month
• BSmall Quantity Generator (SQG) generating 100–1,000 kg/month
• CLarge Quantity Generator (LQG) generating ≥1,000 kg/month
• DConditionally Exempt Generator (CEG) generating ≤10 kg/month

The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program is authorized under which statute?

• ASafe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)
• BCERCLA
• CClean Water Act (CWA), Section 402
• DClean Air Act, Title V

During a compliance audit, an auditor identifies a facility storing 1,200 gallons of oil above ground. Which regulation most directly governs spill prevention planning for this storage?

• ARCRA Subtitle C (40 CFR Part 264)
• BSPCC Rule (40 CFR Part 112)
• CNPDES General Permit for Stormwater
• DEPCRA Section 302

CERCLA holds parties liable for response costs at contaminated sites using which standard of liability?

• ANegligence-based liability requiring proof of fault
• BStrict, joint and several liability
• CVicarious liability limited to current site owners
• DContributory liability apportioned by volume of waste

EPCRA Section 313 (Toxic Release Inventory) requires Form R reporting when a facility manufactures or processes a listed toxic chemical in excess of:

• A10,000 lb per year
• B25,000 lb per year
• C500 lb per year
• D1,000 lb per year

Which RCRA provision requires treatment, storage, and disposal facilities (TSDFs) to hold a permit and establishes performance standards for groundwater monitoring and corrective action?

• ARCRA Subtitle D
• BRCRA Subtitle C (40 CFR Parts 264/265)
• CRCRA Subtitle I
• DRCRA Subtitle G

Under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA), EPA sets Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) as close as feasible to the Maximum Contaminant Level Goal (MCLG). The MCLG is based on:

• ABest available treatment technology and cost
• BA level at which no known or anticipated adverse health effects occur with an adequate ma…
• CThe median contaminant level in public water systems nationally
• DTechnologically achievable detection limits using standard laboratory methods

TSCA Section 5 requires manufacturers to submit a Pre-Manufacture Notice (PMN) to EPA before:

• AManufacturing or importing a new chemical substance not on the TSCA Inventory
• BReleasing any listed chemical substance to water or air
• CTransporting a hazardous chemical in interstate commerce
• DDisposing of a chemical substance at a licensed TSDF

EPCRA Section 302 requires facilities to notify the Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC) when they store an extremely hazardous substance (EHS) at or above its:

• AThreshold Planning Quantity (TPQ)
• BReportable Quantity (RQ)
• CThreshold Reporting Quantity (TRQ)
• DMaximum Achievable Quantity (MAQ)

An underground storage tank (UST) storing petroleum is regulated under RCRA Subtitle I (40 CFR Part 280). Which release detection method is acceptable for a pressurized piping system?

• AManual tank gauging once a month
• BAutomatic line leak detectors that restrict or shut off flow
• CStatistical inventory reconciliation only
• DGroundwater monitoring wells within 10 feet of the tank

When conducting a compliance audit against the Clean Air Act, which document is most important for verifying a major stationary source's applicable emission limits and monitoring requirements?

• AThe facility's SPCC Plan
• BThe facility's Title V operating permit
• CEPA's annual NAAQS review notice
• DThe State Implementation Plan only

FIFRA requires pesticide products sold or distributed in the United States to be:

• ALicensed by the state agriculture department only
• BRegistered with EPA and labeled in compliance with registration conditions
• CReviewed under TSCA Section 5 prior to manufacture
• DPermitted under RCRA before commercial distribution

Land Disposal Restrictions (LDR) under RCRA Subtitle C require that hazardous wastes meet treatment standards before land disposal. When a waste does not meet treatment standards, the generator must:

• AApply for a variance from the state environmental agency
• BSend the waste to a TSDF with a land disposal permit and include an LDR notice with the m…
• CConvert the waste to a non-hazardous solid waste by dilution
• DStore the waste indefinitely in satellite accumulation areas

Which program under the Clean Air Act requires facilities to develop a Risk Management Plan (RMP) for processes using listed flammable and toxic substances above threshold quantities?

• ACAA Title V Operating Permits Program
• BCAA Section 112(r) — General Duty Clause and RMP Rule
• CCAA Section 111 New Source Performance Standards
• DCAA Title IV Acid Rain Program

A facility auditor discovers stormwater from the facility is discharging to a municipal separate storm sewer system (MS4). Which permit type would govern these discharges?

• ANPDES individual permit for process wastewater
• BNPDES general permit for stormwater associated with industrial activity
• CRCRA Part B storage permit
• DUIC Class I deep well injection permit

Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom 2012, 29 CFR 1910.1200), a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) must include how many sections?

• A8 sections aligned with the OSHA four-category system
• B16 sections aligned with GHS format
• C12 sections aligned with ISO 11014
• D24 sections covering all hazard categories

A RCRA compliance audit reveals a facility is generating hazardous waste and accumulating it for 95 days. The facility has no RCRA storage permit. This is compliant only if:

• AThe facility is a VSQG generating less than 100 kg/month and stores in tanks
• BThe facility is an SQG and all accumulation requirements of 40 CFR 262 Subpart L are met
• CThe facility is an LQG accumulating within its 90-day limit and meeting LQG standards
• DThe facility is an LQG that has requested a 30-day extension from the state

Which CERCLA response action is typically used for time-critical situations to immediately address an imminent threat, and does not require an extensive Remedial Investigation/Feasibility Study (RI/FS)?

• ARemedial Design/Remedial Action (RD/RA)
• BRemoval action
• CRecord of Decision (ROD)
• DOperation and Maintenance (O&M)

The Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) Section 304 requires immediate notification to the SERC and LEPC when a release of a listed substance exceeds its reportable quantity (RQ). This notification requirement applies to:

• AReleases of any chemical listed on the TSCA Inventory
• BReleases of CERCLA hazardous substances or EPCRA extremely hazardous substances (EHS) abo…
• CAny emission from a Title V permitted facility
• DSpills of petroleum products that reach a navigable waterway

Which type of environmental audit evaluates whether a facility's operations conform to an organization's internal environmental policies, management system standards, and performance targets?

• AEnvironmental compliance audit
• BEnvironmental management system (EMS) audit
• CPhase I Environmental Site Assessment
• DFunctional environmental audit

In the pre-audit (planning) phase of an environmental compliance audit, which document is most critical for establishing the regulatory baseline against which the facility will be evaluated?

• AThe facility's emergency response plan
• BApplicable federal, state, and local environmental regulations and the facility's permits
• CHistorical aerial photographs of the property
• DThe facility's last quarterly earnings report

ISO 19011 defines auditing principles that guide environmental auditors. Which principle holds that audit findings, conclusions, and reports should accurately and truthfully reflect the audit activities?

• AIndependence
• BEvidence-based approach
• CIntegrity
• DFair presentation

A Phase I Environmental Site Assessment (Phase I ESA) conducted per ASTM E1527-21 is designed to identify which of the following?

• AThe exact concentration of contaminants in soil and groundwater
• BRecognized Environmental Conditions (RECs) indicating potential contamination
• CSpecific permit violations at the subject property
• DEndangered species or wetlands on the site

Under 40 CFR Part 280, a petroleum UST owner must report a confirmed release to the state implementing agency within:

• A7 days
• B24 hours
• C30 days
• D60 days

The primary objective of an environmental compliance audit is to:

• ACalculate the financial value of the site's environmental liabilities
• BVerify that facility operations comply with applicable environmental laws, regulations, a…
• CReplace the facility's environmental management system
• DConduct soil and groundwater sampling to identify contamination

ISO 14001:2015 uses which management framework as the foundation for its environmental management system requirements?

• ASix Sigma DMAIC cycle
• BPlan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle
• COSHA Voluntary Protection Program (VPP) model
• DLean manufacturing 5S methodology

When prioritizing findings in an environmental compliance audit report, which finding would be classified as the most critical?

• AA permit expires in 90 days and renewal has not been initiated
• BAn active discharge of untreated wastewater to a stream without an NPDES permit
• CA safety data sheet binder is missing one SDS for a low-hazard cleaning product
• DEmployee environmental training records are missing signatures from 3 years ago

Environmental auditor independence is best preserved when the lead auditor:

• AIs an employee of the facility being audited who also manages the EMS
• BHas no recent financial interest in, or operational responsibility for, the area being au…
• CIs hired directly by the operating manager of the audited process
• DPerforms corrective actions identified during the same audit

Which environmental program management tool identifies an organization's environmental aspects and evaluates which aspects have significant environmental impacts?

• ASWPPP (Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan)
• BEnvironmental Aspects and Impacts register under ISO 14001
• CTier II emergency inventory report
• DMaterial Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) system

An auditor interviews a facility operator during an on-site compliance audit. To obtain the most reliable information about day-to-day waste management practices, the auditor should:

• ARely solely on the facility's written procedures without field verification
• BCombine document review with direct observation of waste accumulation areas and operator…
• CAccept management's written summary of operations without questioning staff
• DOnly review EPA's ECHO database inspection records

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) selection for hazardous chemical handling must be based on:

• ACost and availability of PPE in the facility storeroom
• BHazard assessment that identifies the nature and level of exposure
• CRegulatory category of the chemical under RCRA
• DOSHA's standard for laboratory chemical hygiene plans only

During an audit of a paint manufacturing facility, the auditor finds drums of spent solvents accumulated for 75 days with proper labels but no hazardous waste manifest on file for the previous shipment. This finding most likely indicates:

• AA RCRA LQG violation for failure to maintain completed manifests for 3 years
• BA TSCA Section 8 reporting deficiency
• CA CAA Title V recordkeeping violation
• DAn EPCRA Tier II reporting error

A corrective action plan (CAP) following an environmental compliance audit should include all of the following EXCEPT:

• AA description of each deficiency and its root cause
• BSpecific corrective measures with assigned responsible parties
• CTarget completion dates for each corrective action
• DA list of all employees' salaries responsible for corrective action

Which GHS hazard pictogram is used to communicate acute toxicity (oral, dermal, or inhalation) at categories 1–3?

• AExclamation mark (!) pictogram
• BSkull and crossbones pictogram
• CFlame over circle (oxidizer) pictogram
• DHealth hazard (silhouette with starburst) pictogram

Pollution prevention (P2) strategies are ranked in order of preference. Which hierarchy correctly lists the preferred order?

• ADisposal → Treatment → Recycling → Source Reduction
• BSource Reduction → Recycling/Reuse → Treatment → Disposal
• CTreatment → Source Reduction → Disposal → Recycling
• DRecycling → Disposal → Source Reduction → Treatment

A flash point of 100°F (37.8°C) or below classifies a liquid as a flammable liquid under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.106. Under GHS/HazCom 2012, which flammability category does this fall into?

• AGHS Flammable Liquid Category 4 (flash point 60–93°C)
• BGHS Flammable Liquid Category 1 (flash point <23°C and initial boiling point ≤35°C) or Ca…
• CGHS Combustible Liquid (flash point >93°C)
• DGHS Pyrophoric Liquid Category 1

Toxicology uses the dose-response relationship to characterize chemical hazard. Which phrase best expresses the foundational principle of toxicology?

• AThe route of exposure determines the toxicity of any substance
• BThe dose makes the poison (all substances are toxic at some dose)
• COnly synthetic chemicals are toxic to humans
• DThreshold effects apply to all carcinogens

In groundwater contamination assessments, hydraulic conductivity (K) describes:

• AThe rate at which a contaminant degrades in the subsurface
• BThe ease with which water flows through a porous medium
• CThe vertical height of the water table above sea level
• DThe adsorption coefficient of a contaminant to soil particles

The LD50 value for a chemical substance represents:

• AThe lowest dose that causes no observable adverse effect in 50% of test animals
• BThe dose that is lethal to 50% of a test animal population under specified conditions
• CThe concentration in air that is immediately dangerous to life and health
• DThe acceptable daily intake for 50% of the human population

An auditor is reviewing a facility's stormwater records and finds that the required semi-annual visual inspections of the site and discharge locations have not been documented. This is a finding under which program?

• ARCRA satellite accumulation area inspection requirement
• BNPDES industrial stormwater general permit (SWPPP inspection requirement)
• CSPCC Plan periodic inspection requirement
• DOSHA Process Safety Management (PSM) pre-startup safety review

Which of the following best describes the role of the State Emergency Response Commission (SERC) under EPCRA?

• ATo enforce EPA's RCRA hazardous waste generator regulations at the state level
• BTo oversee the implementation of emergency planning and the work of Local Emergency Plann…
• CTo issue NPDES permits for industrial facilities within the state
• DTo administer the CERCLA NPL listing process for contaminated sites

During a hazardous waste audit, an auditor observes that the facility is mixing listed and non-listed solid wastes in the same container. Under RCRA, the result of this mixing is best described by which rule?

• ADerived-from rule — the mixture becomes listed because it was derived from a listed waste
• BMixture rule — the entire mixture is classified as the listed hazardous waste
• CContained-in policy — the mixture is non-hazardous if diluted below regulatory thresholds
• DDe minimis exemption — mixtures with less than 1% listed waste are non-hazardous

Which of the following correctly describes a characteristic of soil texture that is important in predicting contaminant mobility in the subsurface?

• AFine-grained clays have high hydraulic conductivity and allow rapid contaminant transport
• BCoarse-grained sands and gravels have higher hydraulic conductivity and allow faster cont…
• CSoil texture has no relationship to contaminant transport rates
• DSilts have the highest hydraulic conductivity of all soil types

An environmental auditor discovers that an air monitoring record required by the facility's Title V permit has been altered to show compliance when the original measurement exceeded the permit limit. This action constitutes:

• AA minor administrative deficiency correctable without penalty
• BA potential criminal violation under CAA Section 113(c) for falsifying required records
• CAn acceptable practice if approved by the plant manager
• DA TSCA Section 8 recordkeeping violation only

Which sampling approach is most appropriate when an auditor needs to estimate the concentration of a chemical in a large, homogeneous wastewater stream entering a treatment system?

• AGrab sampling collected at a single random point in time
• BComposite sampling that combines multiple grab samples collected over time or location
• CPassive diffusion bag sampling used only for groundwater monitoring wells
• DWipe sampling to detect surface contamination

An environmental management system audit conducted under ISO 14001 finds that a manufacturing facility's environmental objectives have not been reviewed by top management in over two years. This nonconformance relates to which ISO 14001:2015 clause?

• AClause 6.1 — Actions to address risks and opportunities
• BClause 9.3 — Management review
• CClause 8.1 — Operational planning and control
• DClause 10.2 — Nonconformity and corrective action