IHMM CHMM Certified Hazardous Materials Manager

Under RCRA Subtitle C (40 CFR Part 262), a large quantity generator (LQG) must ship hazardous waste off-site within how many days of accumulation start?

• A90 days
• B180 days
• C270 days
• D365 days

Which EPA regulation establishes the Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure (SPCC) program for above-ground oil storage facilities?

• A40 CFR Part 110
• B40 CFR Part 112
• C40 CFR Part 261
• D40 CFR Part 300

A facility manager receives a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment (ESA) report identifying a Recognized Environmental Condition (REC). What is the appropriate next step under ASTM E1527-21?

• AImmediately notify EPA and begin remediation
• BCommission a Phase II ESA with subsurface sampling and laboratory analysis
• CFile a CERCLA notification with the National Response Center
• DConduct an Environmental Management System audit under ISO 14001

Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120 (HAZWOPER), what is the minimum annual refresher training requirement for employees on a hazardous waste site?

• A4 hours
• B8 hours
• C16 hours
• D40 hours

CERCLA Section 103 requires notification to the National Response Center when a release of a hazardous substance equals or exceeds its Reportable Quantity (RQ). Under 40 CFR Part 302, what is the default RQ for substances not otherwise listed?

• A1 pound
• B10 pounds
• C100 pounds
• D1,000 pounds

Under EPCRA Section 313 (Toxic Release Inventory), what is the threshold reporting quantity for a manufacturing facility using a listed toxic chemical?

• A10,000 pounds processed
• B25,000 pounds manufactured or processed
• C50,000 pounds otherwise used
• D100,000 pounds total on-site

A CHMM is reviewing a facility's RCRA hazardous waste manifest. Which agency form number is the Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest?

• AEPA Form 8700-22
• BDOT Form F 5800.1
• COSHA Form 300A
• DEPA Form 7550-1

Under 49 CFR 172.504, which placard is required when shipping a quantity of hazardous materials that does not meet the 1,001-pound threshold for a specific hazard class?

• ADANGEROUS placard
• BClass-specific placard for the predominant hazard
• CHAZMAT placard
• DNo placard is required

The Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP) is used to determine RCRA D-list toxicity characteristic status. Which analytical method standard governs the TCLP?

• AEPA SW-846 Method 1311
• BASTM D1535
• CEPA Method 8270D
• DNIOSH 1501

Which RCRA Subtitle C provision establishes Land Disposal Restrictions (LDRs) that prohibit placement of untreated hazardous wastes into land disposal units?

• ARCRA Section 3004(d)-(k)
• BRCRA Section 3005
• CRCRA Section 3002
• DRCRA Section 7003

A facility stores bulk quantities of flammable and combustible liquids. Under NFPA 30, what is the maximum allowable quantity of flammable liquids (Class I) in a standard inside storage room without automatic sprinklers?

• A60 gallons
• B120 gallons
• C240 gallons
• D500 gallons

Under TSCA Section 5, what requirement applies before a manufacturer introduces a new chemical substance into commerce?

• APre-manufacture Notice (PMN) submitted to EPA at least 90 days before manufacture
• BMaterial Safety Data Sheet filed with OSHA
• CSection 8(e) substantial risk notification within 30 days
• DRisk Management Plan submitted to EPA

Under the Clean Air Act Section 112(r) Risk Management Program (RMP), what is the minimum threshold quantity of chlorine that triggers RMP requirements for a toxic substance?

• A100 pounds
• B500 pounds
• C2,500 pounds
• D10,000 pounds

A hazardous materials manager is developing an emergency response plan under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120(q). Which Incident Command System (ICS) position must the individual in charge designate with specific responsibility to identify and evaluate hazards and to direct the safety of operations?

• AIncident Commander
• BSafety Officer
• COperations Section Chief
• DOn-Scene Incident Commander (OSIC)

Which OSHA standard at 29 CFR 1910.119 requires a Process Hazard Analysis (PHA) for facilities with highly hazardous chemicals above threshold quantities?

• AOSHA PSM Standard
• BOSHA HAZWOPER Standard
• COSHA Lockout/Tagout Standard
• DOSHA Confined Space Standard

In industrial hygiene, the permissible exposure limit (PEL) is defined as an 8-hour time-weighted average (TWA) concentration of a substance that workers may be repeatedly exposed to without adverse effects. Which agency sets PELs that are legally enforceable?

• ANIOSH
• BACGIH
• COSHA
• DEPA

A CHMM is evaluating a facility's ISO 14001 Environmental Management System. Which element of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle requires the organization to establish environmental objectives and targets?

• ADo
• BCheck
• CAct
• DPlan

Under DOT 49 CFR 172.101, what is the proper shipping name format when a hazardous material's technical name must be entered in parentheses on a shipping paper?

• AThe technical name replaces the proper shipping name
• BThe technical name appears in parentheses immediately following the proper shipping name…
• CThe technical name is listed only on the SDS, not on the shipping paper
• DThe technical name appears as a separate line item on the manifest

Which GHS pictogram is used for substances classified as acutely toxic (categories 1-3) presenting a severe or lethal hazard?

• AExclamation mark (!) pictogram
• BSkull and crossbones pictogram
• CHealth hazard (silhouette) pictogram
• DFlame pictogram

A hazmat manager is implementing a pollution prevention hierarchy. Under EPA's P2 framework (Pollution Prevention Act of 1990), what is the highest preferred approach?

• ARecycling
• BTreatment
• CSource reduction
• DDisposal

Under FIFRA, which entity is responsible for registering pesticides for use in the United States before they can be sold or distributed?

• AOSHA
• BEPA
• CUSDA
• DFDA

A CHMM conducting an environmental compliance audit finds that the facility has exceeded its Clean Water Act NPDES permit effluent limits for three consecutive months. What is the first required action?

• AShut down the discharge immediately
• BReport the exceedance to the permitting authority per permit reporting conditions
• CFile a CERCLA notification with the NRC
• DIssue an internal corrective action memorandum and wait 90 days

In a risk assessment under CERCLA, what is the cancer risk level that EPA considers acceptable for individual excess lifetime cancer risk from site contamination?

• A1 in 10 (10⁻¹)
• B1 in 1,000 (10⁻³)
• C1 in 10,000 to 1 in 1,000,000 (10⁻⁴ to 10⁻⁶)
• D1 in 100,000,000 (10⁻⁸)

Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134, when must a respirator program include quantitative fit testing (QNFT)?

• AFor all disposable N95 respirators
• BFor tight-fitting facepiece respirators when the fit factor exceeds the qualitative metho…
• CWhenever any powered air-purifying respirator is used
• DOnly for SCBA used by emergency responders

A CHMM is assessing a facility under the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA). Which program specifically regulates underground injection of fluids that could endanger underground sources of drinking water?

• AUnderground Injection Control (UIC) Program — 40 CFR Part 144
• BResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) Subtitle D
• CClean Water Act Section 402 NPDES
• DEmergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) Section 302

Under 40 CFR Part 68 (CAA RMP), a Program 3 facility must complete a Process Hazard Analysis (PHA) revalidation at what minimum frequency?

• AEvery 2 years
• BEvery 3 years
• CEvery 5 years
• DEvery 10 years

A CHMM is managing a site where chlorinated solvents (PCE and TCE) have contaminated groundwater. Which in-situ remediation technology introduces oxidizing agents directly into the subsurface to destroy chlorinated compounds?

• AMonitored Natural Attenuation (MNA)
• BIn-Situ Chemical Oxidation (ISCO)
• CPump-and-Treat
• DAir Sparging

Under RCRA 40 CFR Part 264, Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities (TSDFs) that store hazardous waste in tanks must meet secondary containment requirements. What is the minimum containment volume required for a single tank system?

• A10% of the tank's capacity
• B25% of the tank's capacity
• C50% of the tank's capacity
• D100% of the tank's capacity

A facility manager is evaluating vapor intrusion risk at a site with subsurface PCE contamination. Which regulatory guidance document provides the primary EPA framework for vapor intrusion assessment?

• AEPA OSWER Vapor Intrusion Technical Guide (OSWER 9200.2-154)
• BASTM E1527-21 Phase I ESA Standard
• CEPA 40 CFR Part 302 Reportable Quantities Table
• DOSHA 29 CFR 1910.1000 Table Z-1

Under the Clean Air Act National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP), which category describes sources that emit less than 10 tons/year of a single HAP or less than 25 tons/year of all HAPs combined?

• AMajor sources
• BArea sources
• CMinor sources
• DSynthetic minor sources

When performing baseline human health risk assessment under CERCLA, what exposure pathway is typically evaluated first for a residential receptor at a contaminated site?

• ADermal contact with soil
• BInhalation of indoor air vapors
• CIncidental ingestion of soil
• DInhalation of outdoor ambient air

A CHMM is selecting PPE for an emergency response involving an unknown liquid spill with strong odor. Per OSHA 1910.120(q)(3), what PPE level should initial responders use when the substance and concentrations are unknown?

• ALevel D (standard work uniform)
• BLevel C (air-purifying respirator + splash protection)
• CLevel B (supplied-air + splash suit)
• DLevel A (fully encapsulating suit + SCBA)

Under EPCRA Section 302, Local Emergency Planning Committees (LEPCs) must be notified when a facility has an Extremely Hazardous Substance (EHS) at or above its Threshold Planning Quantity (TPQ). For sulfuric acid, what is the TPQ?

• A100 pounds
• B500 pounds
• C1,000 pounds
• D10,000 pounds

A hazmat manager is evaluating sampling strategy for soil contamination assessment. Which sampling approach uses a predetermined grid to ensure systematic spatial coverage of a site?

• AJudgmental sampling
• BSystematic grid sampling
• CStratified random sampling
• DBiased sampling

Under 49 CFR 173.12, what is the exemption that allows small quantities of hazardous materials to be transported in limited quantities with reduced packaging and marking requirements?

• AExcepted quantities exemption (EQ)
• BLimited quantities (LQ) provisions
• CConsumer commodity (ORM-D) classification
• DDe minimis quantities exemption

Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1200 (HazCom), a chemical manufacturer must ensure that a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) accompanies or precedes each shipment of a hazardous chemical to a downstream user. What is the required SDS update frequency when new significant information becomes available?

• AWithin 30 days
• BWithin 90 days
• CWithin 1 year
• DAt the next scheduled revision cycle

A CHMM is developing a training program for new hazmat employees. Under 29 CFR 1910.120(e)(3), before a new employee is allowed to engage in hazardous waste operations on a site, what is the required training?

• A4-hour hazmat awareness course
• B16-hour HAZWOPER operations-level training
• C24-hour HAZWOPER training with 1 day field experience
• D40-hour HAZWOPER training with 3 days supervised field experience

Which of the following correctly describes an EPA 'universal waste' under 40 CFR Part 273, and why universal waste rules were created?

• AUniversal wastes are any wastes universally hazardous and require full Subtitle C manifest
• BUniversal wastes are common hazardous wastes generated in large quantities by households,…
• CUniversal wastes include batteries, pesticides, mercury lamps, aerosols, and mercury ther…
• DUniversal wastes are non-hazardous wastes that may contain trace amounts of regulated sub…

A hazardous materials manager is reviewing an emergency response plan. Under NFPA 472, what response competency level is required of personnel who take offensive action to control or mitigate a hazmat incident?

• AAwareness Level
• BOperations Level
• CTechnician Level
• DIncident Commander Level

Under RCRA 40 CFR Part 262.14, which generator category is a facility that generates less than 100 kilograms of hazardous waste in any calendar month?

• ALarge Quantity Generator (LQG)
• BSmall Quantity Generator (SQG)
• CVery Small Quantity Generator (VSQG)
• DConditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator (CESQG)

Which DOT hazard class covers flammable liquids with a flash point at or above 60°C (140°F) and at or below 93°C (200°F)?

• AClass 3, Packing Group I
• BClass 3, Packing Group III (combustible liquids per 49 CFR)
• CClass 3, Packing Group II
• DClass 9 (miscellaneous hazardous materials)

A CHMM is evaluating a stormwater management program. Under the Clean Water Act, industrial facilities must obtain a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit for stormwater discharges under which rule?

• A40 CFR Part 110 (Oil Pollution Prevention)
• B40 CFR Part 122 (NPDES Permit Program)
• C40 CFR Part 302 (CERCLA Reportable Quantities)
• D40 CFR Part 260 (RCRA Hazardous Waste)

Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146 (Permit-Required Confined Spaces), which condition converts a non-permit confined space into a permit-required confined space (PRCS)?

• AThe space is below grade (underground)
• BThe space has limited or restricted means of entry or exit
• CThe space contains or has a potential to contain a serious safety or health hazard
• DThe space is large enough to enter and perform assigned work

A hazardous waste facility is auditing its RCRA corrective action program. Which regulatory authority requires corrective action at solid waste management units (SWMUs) at RCRA-permitted TSDFs?

• ARCRA Section 3004(u)
• BCERCLA Section 106
• CClean Water Act Section 308
• DTSCA Section 5

In industrial hygiene monitoring, a photoionization detector (PID) measures volatile organic compounds by ionizing molecules using ultraviolet light. What ionization potential (eV) lamp is most commonly used for general VOC screening?

• A9.8 eV lamp
• B10.6 eV lamp
• C11.7 eV lamp
• D15.0 eV lamp

Under the EPA's Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), which parties are potentially responsible parties (PRPs) subject to cleanup liability?

• ACurrent owners only
• BCurrent owners and operators only
• CCurrent owners/operators, past owners/operators during disposal, generators, and transpor…
• DOnly parties who intentionally disposed of hazardous substances

A CHMM is implementing an environmental management system under ISO 14001:2015. The organization must identify and evaluate environmental aspects that can have significant environmental impacts. Which factor is NOT part of the environmental aspect significance determination?

• AFrequency of the activity
• BSeverity and reversibility of the environmental impact
• CThe organization's annual revenue
• DRegulatory and legal requirements applicable to the aspect

A facility must determine whether its stormwater runoff contains oil that could cause a sheen on navigable waters. Under the Clean Water Act, what visual standard indicates a potentially reportable oil discharge?

• AA reading of >10 mg/L oil and grease by laboratory analysis
• BA visible sheen or discoloration on the surface of water or a sludge beneath the surface
• CAn oil sheen visible from more than 1,000 feet away
• DA measured oil and grease concentration above the NPDES permit limit