IHMM CDGT Certified Dangerous Goods Trainer

Under 49 CFR 172.704, which training category is required for ALL hazmat employees regardless of their specific function?

• AIn-depth security training
• BGeneral awareness/familiarization training
• CDriver-specific training
• DEmergency response training

How long must a hazmat employer retain training records for a hazmat employee under 49 CFR 172.704(d)?

• AFor 1 year after completion of training
• BFor 2 years after completion of training
• CFor the period of employment plus 90 days thereafter
• DFor 5 years after completion of training

How often must hazmat employees be retrained under 49 CFR 172.704(c)(2)?

• AAt least once every year
• BAt least once every two years
• CAt least once every three years
• DOnly upon regulation changes

A trainer is developing function-specific training under 49 CFR 172.704(a)(2). What is the primary focus of this training category?

• ABroad familiarity with the HMR for all employees
• BDetailed training on the specific requirements applicable to the functions the employee p…
• CSecurity awareness training only
• DEmergency response technician-level training

Which of the following employees is subject to in-depth security training under 49 CFR 172.704(a)(5)?

• AAny office worker who never handles hazmat
• BHazmat employees of an employer required to have a security plan under Subpart I of Part…
• COnly drivers transporting Division 1.1 explosives
• DOnly emergency responders under HAZWOPER

Security awareness training under 49 CFR 172.704(a)(4) must include which of the following elements?

• AHow to operate a forklift safely
• BAwareness of security risks associated with hazmat transport and methods to enhance secur…
• COnly the chemical names of materials shipped
• DHAZWOPER response procedures

When a new hazmat employee is hired, under 49 CFR 172.704(c)(1), within what timeframe must they complete their initial training?

• AWithin 30 days of hire
• BWithin 60 days of hire
• CWithin 90 days of the employment or change in job function
• DWithin 6 months of hire

Safety training under 49 CFR 172.704(a)(3) must address all of the following EXCEPT:

• AEmergency response information
• BMeasures to protect the employee from hazards
• CMethods and procedures for avoiding accidents
• DAdult-learning pedagogy and classroom management

Under 49 CFR 172.702(b), who is responsible for ensuring that each hazmat employee is trained, tested, and certified?

• AThe hazmat employee
• BThe hazmat employer
• CThe carrier only
• DOSHA inspectors

A trainer is documenting a completed training session. Under 49 CFR 172.704(d), which of the following is NOT a required element of the training record?

• AThe hazmat employee's name
• BThe trainer's Social Security number
• CThe trainer's name and address
• DCertification that the hazmat employee has been trained and tested

Which hazard class covers flammable liquids?

• AClass 2
• BClass 3
• CClass 4
• DClass 5

Division 2.3 indicates which type of hazard?

• AFlammable gas
• BNon-flammable, non-toxic gas
• CToxic gas (gas poisonous by inhalation)
• DOxidizing gas

What does Packing Group I indicate for a substance in Class 3, 4, 5.1, 6.1, 8, or 9?

• AMinor danger
• BMedium danger
• CGreat danger
• DNo danger

Which of the following hazard classes does NOT use packing groups?

• AClass 3 flammable liquids
• BClass 6.1 toxic substances
• CClass 2 gases
• DClass 8 corrosive substances

What is a UN number?

• AA tracking number assigned by the carrier
• BA four-digit identification number assigned by the UN Committee of Experts that identifie…
• CThe employer's DOT registration number
• DA certification number for trained hazmat employees

UN1993 refers to which dangerous good?

• AGasoline
• BFlammable liquid, n.o.s.
• CSulfuric acid
• DLithium ion batteries

Division 1.1 explosives present which hazard?

• AProjection hazard only
• BFire hazard only
• CMass explosion hazard
• DExtremely insensitive with no risk of mass explosion

Division 4.3 describes materials that:

• AAre readily combustible solids
• BAre liable to spontaneous combustion
• CEmit flammable gas when in contact with water
• DAre oxidizing solids

Division 5.2 covers which type of materials?

• AOxidizing substances
• BOrganic peroxides
• CToxic substances
• DInfectious substances

Division 6.2 covers which type of materials?

• AFlammable solids
• BToxic (poisonous) substances
• CInfectious substances
• DCorrosive substances

Which hazard class covers lithium batteries and magnetized materials?

• AClass 3
• BClass 7
• CClass 8
• DClass 9

What is the proper shipping name used for under the UN Model Regulations?

• AThe trade name of the product
• BThe name that most accurately describes the dangerous good as listed in the Dangerous Goo…
• CThe chemical formula only
• DThe manufacturer's internal code

A shipping paper lists 'UN1263, Paint, 3, PG II.' What does 'PG II' indicate?

• APackage group number 2
• BPacking group II — medium danger
• CPlacard group II
• DPassenger group level 2

Class 1 explosives use compatibility groups (A-S) instead of packing groups. What does the compatibility group letter indicate?

• AThe explosive's yield in TNT equivalents
• BThe degree of sensitivity to shock
• CThe types of explosives that may be loaded together without increased risk
• DThe color of the required label

A marine pollutant under the IMDG Code is identified on a shipping paper by which notation?

• AThe notation 'POLLUTANT' in red
• BThe letter 'P' after the UN number
• CThe notation 'MARINE POLLUTANT' after the basic description
• DA skull and crossbones symbol

Under the IMDG Code, what does a segregation table determine?

• AWhich carriers may transport a substance
• BMinimum separation distances between different dangerous goods on a vessel
• CPackage sizes for different classes
• DLabeling requirements for each class

Which IMDG Code stowage category would typically apply to highly flammable or toxic substances that must be stowed on deck only?

• ACategory A — on deck or under deck
• BCategory B — on deck or under deck, passenger limitations
• CCategory D — on deck only on cargo ships, on deck or under deck on passenger ships with l…
• DCategory E — on deck only on cargo and passenger ships, with passenger number limits

Who is required to sign a Container/Vehicle Packing Certificate under the IMDG Code?

• AThe vessel master
• BThe port authority
• CThe person responsible for packing the container/vehicle
• DThe consignee

The IMDG Code is published and maintained by which organization?

• AIATA — International Air Transport Association
• BIMO — International Maritime Organization
• CICAO — International Civil Aviation Organization
• DUN ECE — Economic Commission for Europe

Under IMDG Code, what does the notation 'Stow separated from' mean?

• ADifferent hold or compartment is required
• BAt least 3 meters horizontal distance when stowed in the same compartment or hold
• CDifferent vessel entirely
• DStow in opposite corners of the same compartment

Who signs the IATA Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods?

• AThe pilot in command
• BThe operator's handling agent
• CThe shipper, certifying the contents are correctly classified, packed, marked, labeled, a…
• DThe consignee upon receipt

In the IATA DGR, what does the abbreviation 'PAX' mean in packing instructions?

• APacked and examined
• BPassenger aircraft (passenger and cargo aircraft)
• CProper shipping approved
• DPermitted across borders

A 'CAO' label must be applied to which shipments in air transport?

• AAll dangerous goods shipments
• BOnly radioactive materials
• CDangerous goods forbidden on passenger aircraft — they may travel only on cargo aircraft
• DShipments under excepted quantities

In IATA DGR, what is a State Variation (e.g., USG-02)?

• AA national modification to the regulations that applies to all operators serving that sta…
• BA voluntary safety recommendation
• CA carrier-specific preference
• DAn item that cannot be shipped anywhere

Operator variations (e.g., 'FX-' for FedEx) differ from state variations in that they:

• AOverride state law
• BApply only to the specific operator, not all operators in that state
• CApply to all operators globally
• DAre voluntary for the shipper

A shipper is preparing a 'Y'-prefixed packing instruction shipment in IATA DGR. What does the 'Y' signify?

• AA radioactive material shipment
• BA limited quantity shipment with reduced packaging and documentation requirements
• CA yellow-label package
• DA yes-to-all-carriers marking

The IATA DGR lists a substance as 'Forbidden' in Columns E and F of the Dangerous Goods List. This means:

• AThe item is forbidden on passenger aircraft but allowed on cargo aircraft
• BThe item is forbidden on all aircraft under normal conditions
• CThe item requires special packaging
• DThe item requires a waiver

What is the maximum allowable gross mass of a package of Excepted Quantities (EQ) in air transport per IATA DGR?

• A1 kg
• B5 kg
• C30 kg
• D100 kg

Which IATA DGR packing instruction applies to standalone lithium ION batteries (UN3480)?

• API 965
• BPI 966
• CPI 968
• DPI 970

A shipment of lithium ion batteries under PI 965 Section IA contains cells rated:

• AUp to 2.7 Wh per cell / 2.5 g lithium content
• BGreater than 20 Wh per cell or greater than 100 Wh per battery — full regulation
• CExactly 100 Wh
• DLess than 0.3 g lithium content

The lithium battery mark (white rectangle with red hatched border, battery symbol, and UN number) is required on packages:

• AOnly for fully regulated lithium batteries under Section IA
• BFor packages covered by the smaller-cell Section II of PI 965-970 where the full Class 9…
• COnly on the airway bill
• DOnly for batteries contained in equipment

A passenger wants to carry spare lithium ion batteries in their checked baggage on a commercial flight. Under IATA DGR 2.3 passenger provisions, this is:

• APermitted without restriction
• BForbidden — spare (uninstalled) lithium batteries must be in carry-on only
• CPermitted only if declared to the captain
• DPermitted up to 500 Wh per battery

Under IATA DGR, lithium ion batteries at State of Charge (SoC) greater than 30% shipped by themselves (UN3480) on cargo aircraft under PI 965 Section IA are:

• ANot restricted by SoC
• BRestricted — batteries shipped standalone under Section IA must have SoC of not more than…
• CForbidden entirely regardless of SoC
• DOnly permitted above 50% SoC

The 'Excepted Quantity' (EQ) mark is NOT required when the dangerous goods quantity is:

• AAbove the EQ threshold — then full packaging/marking/labeling applies and EQ mark does no…
• BAny quantity
• COnly under 1 g
• DA Class 1 explosive

What is the primary international authority that the IATA DGR is based on?

• A49 CFR Hazardous Materials Regulations
• BICAO Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air
• CIMDG Code
• DUN Recommendations (Orange Book)

The ICAO Technical Instructions are reissued:

• AEvery year
• BEvery two years (biennial edition)
• CEvery five years
• DOnly after an accident

ICAO Annex 18 requires each contracting state to do what with respect to dangerous goods training?

• ATrain only flight crew
• BEstablish dangerous goods training programs and require that personnel involved in DG tra…
• CLeave training to individual airlines
• DRequire training only for shippers