Veterinary Council of Ireland Registration Exam Part 1 (Ireland)

A 3-year-old male neutered Golden Retriever is presented with acute onset of hypersalivation, vomiting, tremors, and severe dyspnoea after chewing on garden plants. The owner reveals they recently planted sago palms (Cycas revoluta). Which of the following is the primary toxin responsible for these clinical signs, and what is its main target organ?

• ACycasin, leading to acute hepatic necrosis
• BPersin, causing myocardial necrosis
• CTaxine alkaloid, causing cardiotoxicity and cardiac arrest
• DGrayanotoxin, causing transient cardiac arrhythmias

A 12-year-old domestic shorthair cat is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The owner wants a definitive cure with the lowest risk of recurrence. Which of the following treatments is the gold standard for achieving this outcome?

• ADaily oral administration of methimazole
• BRadioactive iodine (I-131) therapy
• CSurgical bilateral thyroidectomy
• DExclusive feeding of an iodine-restricted prescription diet

An 8-year-old female spayed West Highland White Terrier presents with a history of progressive cough and exercise intolerance. On clinical examination, you auscultate bilateral, high-pitched, inspiratory 'velcro-like' crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis for this dog?

• AIdiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
• BMitral valve disease with left-sided congestive heart failure
• CChronic bronchitis
• DAngiostrongylus vasorum infection

During general anaesthesia of a dog using a rebreathing circuit, you observe on the capnograph that the baseline (inspired carbon dioxide) does not return to zero (remaining at 8 mmHg). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

• AExhaustion of the soda lime carbon dioxide absorber
• BKinking or occlusion of the endotracheal tube
• CDisconnection of the fresh gas supply
• DInadequate fresh gas flow rate in a Bain system

A 10-year-old domestic shorthair cat with chronic kidney disease presents with acute onset of bilateral blindness. On ophthalmoscopic examination, you observe bilateral retinal detachments and retinal haemorrhages. What is the most appropriate first-line medical treatment for this patient?

• AAmlodipine besylate
• BBenazepril hydrochloride
• CIntravenous mannitol
• DPrednisolone ophthalmic drops

Which radiographic projection and specific anatomical changes are most reliable for diagnosing left-sided congestive heart failure in a dog?

• ARight lateral projection; vertebral heart scale (VHS) > 10.5 and dilation of the pulmonar…
• BLeft lateral projection; microcardia and hypovascular lung fields
• CDorsoventral projection; right ventricular 'reverse D' shape and enlargement of the cauda…
• DVentrodorsal projection; elongation of the heart and pleural effusion

An active 4-year-old male neutered Labrador Retriever is diagnosed with a complete cranial cruciate ligament rupture of the left stifle. Which surgical procedure is currently considered the clinical standard for restoring long-term biomechanical stability and slowing osteoarthritis progression in large, active dogs?

• ALateral fabellar suture (extracapsular stabilization)
• BTibial Plateau Leveling Osteotomy (TPLO)
• CIntracapsular reconstruction using an autograft
• DConservative management with strict crate rest and NSAIDs

A 4-year-old male neutered domestic shorthair cat presents with stranguria, pollakiuria, and vocalization while attempting to urinate. On palpation, the bladder is large, firm, and painful. What is the most critical initial medical intervention after stabilizing the patient's cardiovascular status?

• ADecompressive cystocentesis followed by gentle urethral retrograde flushing (urinary cath…
• BImmediate perineal urethrostomy (PU) surgery
• CAdministration of systemic buprenorphine and oral prazosin
• DIntravenous administration of loop diuretics to force urination

A 6-year-old Boxer presents with a 2 cm cutaneous mass on the lateral thorax. Fine-needle aspiration confirms a mast cell tumor. Which of the following is the current standard surgical recommendation for the local excision of a low-to-medium grade cutaneous mast cell tumor in dogs?

• AMarginal excision with 1 mm lateral margins and no fascial plane removal
• BWide local excision with 2 cm lateral margins and 1 clean fascial plane deep
• CRadical excision with 5 cm lateral margins and 3 deep fascial planes
• DExcision of the mass with a 1 cm margin, leaving the deep fascia intact to facilitate wou…

A dog is suspected of ingesting ethylene glycol (antifreeze) approximately 2 hours ago. Which of the following represents the preferred specific antidote for treating ethylene glycol toxicosis in dogs, and what is its mechanism of action?

• A4-Methylpyrazole (fomepizole), which competitively inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
• BEthanol (20%), which induces liver microsomal enzymes to speed up toxin excretion
• CActivated charcoal, which irreversibly binds ethylene glycol in the stomach
• DMethylene blue, which restores cytochrome b5 reductase activity

A 5-year-old female spayed Miniature Poodle presents with acute vomiting, cranial abdominal pain, and anorexia. Serum lipase activity (cPLI) is highly elevated, and abdominal ultrasound reveals a hypoechoic, enlarged pancreas surrounded by hyperechoic mesenteric fat. What is the most critical dietary management recommendation once vomiting is controlled?

• AFeeding a highly digestible, ultra-low-fat diet as soon as possible
• BWithholding all oral food and water for 3 to 5 days ('resting the gut')
• CFeeding a high-fat, high-calorie recovery diet to prevent hepatic lipidosis
• DFeeding an exclusive raw meat diet to avoid dietary starches and fiber

An anaesthetized dog becomes hypotensive (mean arterial pressure = 48 mmHg). After reducing the vaporizer setting and administering an intravenous crystalloid fluid bolus, the blood pressure remains unchanged. What is the next most appropriate pharmacological intervention to support blood pressure?

• AIntravenous bolus of dobutamine or an infusion of dopamine
• BIntramuscular administration of acepromazine
• CIntravenous injection of dexamethasone sodium phosphate
• DIntravenous administration of atropine sulfate

A 4-year-old female Standard Poodle presents with lethargy, waxing and waning anorexia, and mild diarrhea. Blood results reveal a sodium:potassium ratio of 22:1, hypocobalaminaemia, and azotemia. Which diagnostic test is the gold standard for confirming a diagnosis of hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)?

• AACTH stimulation test
• BLow-dose dexamethasone suppression test (LDDST)
• CEndogenous ACTH concentration measurement
• DUrine cortisol-to-creatinine ratio (UCCR)

A 1-year-old male neutered Bengal cat is presented with progressive abdominal distension, lethargy, and fluctuating pyrexia. On examination, you detect abdominal fluid. Fluid analysis reveals a yellow, viscous effusion with high protein content (48 g/L), a low albumin-to-globulin ratio (0.45), and a positive Rivalta test. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• AFeline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)
• BLymphocytic cholangiohepatitis
• CCongestive heart failure
• DAbdominal lymphoma

A dog is presented to your clinic immediately after being hit by a car, suffering from severe head trauma. The dog is stuporous, with anisocoria and episodic extensor rigidity. Which of the following therapeutic plans is contraindicated for this patient?

• AIntravenous administration of hypotonic fluids (e.g., 0.45% NaCl or 5% Dextrose)
• BIntravenous administration of hypertonic saline (7.2%) or mannitol
• CElevating the head by 15-30 degrees while avoiding jugular compression
• DFlow-by oxygen therapy to maintain normoxaemia

A 5-year-old Shih Tzu presents with a blepharospasm and epiphora. Fluorescein staining reveals a superficial corneal ulcer on the left eye. Which of the following classes of drugs is strictly contraindicated for treating this corneal lesion?

• ATopical corticosteroids
• BTopical fluoroquinolones
• CTopical autologous serum
• DTopical atropine sulfate

A 16-week-old unvaccinated puppy presents with severe hemorrhagic diarrhea, vomiting, and profound leukopenia. You suspect canine parvoviral enteritis. In addition to aggressive fluid therapy and broad-spectrum antibiotics, what is the current consensus regarding nutritional support for this patient?

• ABegin enteral nutrition as soon as possible, even if the puppy is still mildly nauseous
• BMaintain a strict 'nil by mouth' status until the puppy has not vomited for 24 hours
• CProvide parenteral nutrition only, avoiding any enteral intake to prevent gut stimulation
• DFeed a high-fiber, low-protein diet to slow intestinal transit time

You are selecting an empirical antibiotic for a dog with suspected superficial bacterial folliculitis (pyoderma). According to responsible antimicrobial stewardship guidelines, which of the following is considered a first-line antibiotic choice?

• ACefalexin
• BEnrofloxacin
• CCefovecin
• DAmikacin

A 7-year-old male neutered Irish Wolfhound is diagnosed with dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM) and congestive heart failure. Which of the following drugs is a positive inotrope and balanced vasodilator (inodilator) indicated as a first-line treatment to improve survival in dogs with clinical DCM?

• APimobendan
• BEnalapril
• CSpironolactone
• DAtenolol

A 2-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with acute onset of vomiting and abdominal discomfort. Abdominal radiographs show a classic 'gravel sign' (mineral-dense material proximal to an obstruction) and two populations of small intestinal loops. What is the most appropriate management path?

• APerform an emergency exploratory laparotomy to identify and remove the intestinal foreign…
• BAdminister repeat doses of liquid paraffin orally to lubricate the GI tract
• CDischarge the dog with anti-emetics and advise the owner to monitor feces for the foreign…
• DPerform a blind percutaneous gastropexy to stabilize the stomach

Which of the following local anaesthetics has the slowest onset of action but the longest duration of sensory blockade, making it ideal for post-operative incisional infiltration or nerve blocks?

• ABupivacaine
• BLidocaine
• CMepivacaine
• DProcaine

A 5-year-old female spayed domestic shorthair cat presents with recurrent episodes of wheezing, coughing, and expiratory dyspnoea. Radiographs show a diffuse bronchial pattern with 'donuts' and 'tramlines'. What is the most appropriate long-term management strategy for feline asthma?

• AInhaled fluticasone propionate via a spacer, paired with short-acting inhaled albuterol a…
• BLifelong oral administration of high-dose dexamethasone
• CContinuous treatment with oral broad-spectrum doxycycline
• DIntermittent use of injectable repository methylprednisolone (Depo-Medrol)

A 9-year-old female spayed Dachshund presents with polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and a pot-bellied appearance. You suspect hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's syndrome). Which of the following test results is most diagnostic for confirming Cushing's syndrome?

• AA 4-hour post-dexamethasone cortisol level above 1.4 ug/dL on a low-dose dexamethasone su…
• BAn 8-hour post-dexamethasone cortisol level above 1.4 ug/dL (38 nmol/L) on an LDDST
• CA high resting baseline serum cortisol level on a single random blood sample
• DAn elevated endogenous ACTH concentration on a single plasma sample

A dog is presented with suspected ingestion of a rodenticide. The owner brings the packaging, which lists the active ingredient as bromethalin. What is the mechanism of action of this toxin, and how does it differ from anticoagulant rodenticides?

• AIt uncouples oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria, causing cerebral oedema; it does…
• BIt inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase, depleting factors II, VII, IX, and X
• CIt hyperactivates osteoclasts, leading to severe hypercalcaemia and renal failure
• DIt forms phosphine gas in the acidic environment of the stomach, causing acute cardiovasc…

A 14-year-old domestic shorthair cat with Stage 3 chronic kidney disease requires post-operative analgesia following dental extractions. Which of the following analgesic protocols is most appropriate to provide effective pain relief while minimizing the risk of worsening renal function?

• ABuprenorphine administered sublingually or subcutaneously
• BDaily oral meloxicam at standard label doses for 7 days
• CInjectable carprofen subcutaneous once daily
• DOral paracetamol (acetaminophen) syrup twice daily

A 5-year-old Holstein-Friesian dairy cow, 3 weeks post-calving, presents with a sudden drop in milk yield and selective anorexia (eating hay but refusing concentrates). On physical examination, you auscultate a high-pitched, metallic 'ping' during simultaneous percussion and auscultation of the left paralumbar fossa along a line from the tuber coxae to the elbow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• ALeft Displaced Abomasum (LDA)
• BRumen tympany (bloat)
• CAbomasal volvulus (RDA)
• DVagal indigestion

In the Irish Bovine Viral Diarrhoea (BVD) national eradication scheme, what is the primary method used to detect persistently infected (PI) calves, and what is the required management of identified PI animals?

• AEar-notch tissue tag testing of newborn calves for BVD antigen; immediate isolation and p…
• BBulk milk PCR testing for BVD antibody; vaccination of all heifers before breeding
• CSerology testing of cows at drying off; treatment of infected cows with antivirals
• DSkin testing with bovine tuberculin; immediate slaughter of reactor dams

A twin-bearing Texel ewe in late gestation presents with depression, blindness, head pressing, and acetone-scented breath. What is the primary pathophysiology of this disease (pregnancy toxemia), and what is the standard first-line treatment?

• ANegative energy balance leading to hepatic lipidosis and ketosis; oral administration of…
• BHypocalcaemia leading to neuromuscular blockade; intravenous injection of calcium boroglu…
• CHypomagnesaemia causing hyperexcitability; subcutaneous administration of magnesium sulfa…
• DListeriosis causing microabscesses in the brainstem; high-dose penicillin therapy

A dairy farmer reports an increase in bulk milk somatic cell count (SCC) to 280,000 cells/mL. To identify which individual cows are contributing most to this subclinical mastitis problem, which diagnostic test should be performed cow-side?

• ACalifornia Mastitis Test (CMT)
• BBacterial culture and sensitivity of bulk tank milk
• CElectrical conductivity measurement of the milk line
• DMicroscopic somatic cell counting using a haemocytometer

A beef farmer in the West of Ireland complains of poor weight gain and anaemia in weanlings during late autumn. You suspect chronic fascioliasis (liver fluke). Which of the following flukicides is effective against all stages of Fasciola hepatica (from 2 weeks old to adult), making it the drug of choice for early autumn treatment?

• ATriclabendazole
• BOxyclozanide
• CAlbendazole
• DClorsulon

A pedigree beef herd is implementing an eradication program for Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR). Which type of vaccine must be used to allow the farmer to distinguish vaccinated animals from naturally infected animals on serology, and which antibody is detected to identify infected animals?

• AMarker (gE-deleted) vaccine; detection of glycoprotein E (gE) antibodies
• BInactivated whole-virus vaccine; detection of glycoprotein B (gB) antibodies
• CLive attenuated vaccine; detection of glycoprotein D (gD) antibodies
• DSubunit vaccine; detection of major capsid protein antibodies

A multiparous suckler cow is in second-stage labor for 4 hours with no progress. On vaginal examination, you find the vagina is constricted in a spiral fashion, and you cannot palpate the fetus. What is the diagnosis, and what is the initial conservative correction method?

• AUterine torsion; roll the cow in the direction of the torsion while holding the fetus sta…
• BUterine inertia; administer repeated doses of intravenous oxytocin
• CVaginal prolapse; suture the vulva using a Buhner pattern
• DBreech presentation; perform an embryotomy

A sheep farmer reports severe lameness in a high percentage of the flock. On examination of the feet, you observe interdigital dermatitis, separation of the hoof horn from the underlying tissue starting at the axial wall, and a characteristic foul odor. What is the primary causative organism, and what is the recommended control strategy?

• ADichelobacter nodosus; quarantine incoming sheep, footbathing in 10% zinc sulfate, and va…
• BFusobacterium necrophorum; long-term treatment with oral copper sulfate
• CTreponema pedis; surgical amputation of the affected digits
• DErysipelothrix rhusiopathiae; pasture rotation every 3 days

A third-calving dairy cow is found recumbent 12 hours post-calving. She is in sternal recumbency with her head tucked into her flank. Her pupils are dilated, skin temperature is cool, and there is no rumen motility. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the safest administration route for the primary treatment?

• AHypocalcaemia (milk fever); slow intravenous administration of calcium borogluconate (war…
• BHypomagnesaemia (grass tetany); rapid intravenous injection of magnesium sulfate
• CKetosis; oral drenching of propylene glycol and intravenous dexamethasone
• DToxic mastitis; intramuscular injection of oxytetracycline

A pig farmer reports high mortality in weanlings (6-12 weeks old). Clinical signs include wasting, dyspnoea, pallor, and inguinal lymphadenopathy. Necropsy reveals granulomatous lymphadenitis and interstitial pneumonia. Which virus is the primary cause of this condition (PMWS)?

• APorcine Circovirus Type 2 (PCV2)
• BPorcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome (PRRS) virus
• CClassical Swine Fever virus
• DAfrican Swine Fever virus

Several 10-day-old calves on a dairy farm present with watery, yellow-green diarrhea, lethargy, and dehydration. Fecal examination confirms the presence of Cryptosporidium parvum. What is the most appropriate licensed drug for the prevention and treatment of Cryptosporidium diarrhea in calves?

• AHalofuginone lactate
• BSulfadimidine
• CMetronidazole
• DAmprolium

A group of yearling beef cattle on pasture are found dead. One surviving animal is severely lame with a swollen, hot, crepitant hindquarter. On necropsy, the muscle of the affected limb is dark red to black, dry, and has a rancid butter odor. What is the causative pathogen?

• AClostridium chauvoei
• BClostridium novyi Type B
• CClostridium septicum
• DBacillus anthracis

A sheep farmer in Ireland reports sudden onset of severe diarrhea, dehydration, and mortality in 8-week-old lambs in late spring. Which nematode parasite is most likely responsible for this, and what is its characteristic egg hatching trigger?

• ANematodirus battus; eggs require a period of chilling followed by a mean temperature rise…
• BTeladorsagia circumcincta; eggs hatch immediately upon excretion in warm, dry weather
• CHaemonchus contortus; eggs hatch only during periods of prolonged summer drought
• DFasciola hepatica; eggs hatch when ingested by land snails on wet pasture

A suckler cow has calved 12 hours ago and the fetal membranes are still protruding from the vulva. What is the current recommended veterinary management for retained fetal membranes (RFM) in an otherwise healthy, bright cow?

• ALeave the membranes to detach naturally (up to 7-10 days), avoiding manual traction, and…
• BApply manual traction to pull and peel the membranes from the cotyledons immediately
• CAdminister high doses of intrauterine antibiotics and tie a weight to the membranes
• DPerform an emergency laparotomy to surgically excise the retained placenta

During a herd visit to a dairy farm, you examine several cows with painful, erosive, circumscribed skin lesions covered by a foul-smelling exudate and long hairs at the digital cleft between the bulbs of the heels. What is the diagnosis, and what is the primary causative genus?

• ABovine digital dermatitis (strawberry footrot); Treponema spp.
• BInfectious bulbar necrosis (foul in the foot); Fusobacterium necrophorum
• CInterdigital hyperplasia (corns); Dichelobacter nodosus
• DFootrot; Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

Several calves grazing on a rough upland pasture in summer present with haematuria, mucosal petechiae, and epistaxis. On blood analysis, you find severe pancytopenia. The pasture is heavily infested with bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum). What is the primary toxic principle responsible for this presentation?

• APtaquiloside, causing bone marrow aplasia
• BThiaminase, causing cerebrocortical necrosis
• CPyrrolizidine alkaloids, causing megalocytosis
• DTannins, causing acute renal tubular necrosis

A pig unit experiences an outbreak of chronic coughing, reduced feed conversion efficiency, and uneven growth rates in grower pigs. Lungs from slaughtered pigs show cranioventral consolidation. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this presentation (enzootic pneumonia)?

• AMycoplasma hyopneumoniae
• BActinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
• CPasteurella multocida
• DStreptococcus suis

A sheep farmer plans to vaccinate a flock of ewes against clostridial diseases and pasteurellosis. When is the most critical time to administer the booster vaccine to ensure adequate passive immunity in the lambs?

• A4 to 6 weeks before the expected lambing date
• BImmediately after lambing
• CAt the time of rams being turned in (tupping)
• DAt weaning (approximately 12-16 weeks of age)

A high-producing dairy cow in early lactation is suspected of having subclinical ketosis. Which ketone body is the most stable and reliable indicator for monitoring and diagnosing subclinical ketosis in blood samples?

• ABeta-hydroxybutyrate (BHB)
• BAcetoacetate
• CAcetone
• DIsopropanol

A 5-year-old suckler cow is presented with chronic watery diarrhea and progressive weight loss despite maintaining a normal appetite. On rectal examination, the rectal wall feels thickened. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• AJohne's disease (paratuberculosis)
• BOstertagiasis (Type II)
• CSalmonellosis
• DCoccidiosis

Several 3-month-old calves housed in a pen with old painted timber walls present with acute onset of blindness, head pressing, muscle tremors, and convulsing when stimulated. What is the most likely toxicity, and how is it confirmed?

• ALead poisoning; measurement of blood lead levels (>0.2 ppm)
• BOrganophosphate toxicity; blood cholinesterase levels
• CUrea poisoning; rumen fluid pH
• DSodium chloride (salt) poisoning; CSF sodium levels

Which of the following hormones is administered first in a standard Ovsynch synchronization protocol for dairy cows, and what is its primary physiological purpose?

• AGnRH, to induce ovulation or luteinize a dominant follicle
• BPGF2alpha, to regress an active corpus luteum
• CProgesterone, to prevent premature estrus behavior
• DEstradiol benzoate, to stimulate follicular waves