CESCO Environmental and Safety Compliance Officer

Under RCRA, which of the following is NOT one of the four characteristics used to identify a hazardous waste?

• AIgnitability
• BCorrosivity
• CVolatility
• DReactivity

A facility generates more than 1,000 kilograms but less than 6,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month. Under RCRA, what is this facility's generator category?

• AVery Small Quantity Generator (VSQG)
• BSmall Quantity Generator (SQG)
• CLarge Quantity Generator (LQG)
• DConditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator (CESQG)

What is the maximum storage time allowed for a Small Quantity Generator (SQG) of hazardous waste under RCRA without requiring a storage permit?

• A90 days
• B180 days
• C270 days
• D365 days

The RCRA hazardous waste manifest system requires how many copies of the Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest (EPA Form 8700-22)?

• AThree copies
• BFour copies
• CFive copies
• DSix copies

Under RCRA, what does the 'cradle-to-grave' system refer to?

• ATracking hazardous waste from generation through transportation to final disposal
• BThe lifecycle of RCRA permits from application through expiration
• CEmployee training requirements from hiring through retirement
• DEnvironmental monitoring from site opening through closure

Which RCRA subtitle regulates hazardous waste management?

• ASubtitle A
• BSubtitle C
• CSubtitle D
• DSubtitle I

A facility's hazardous waste has a pH of 1.5. Under RCRA, this waste exhibits which hazardous characteristic?

• AToxicity
• BReactivity
• CCorrosivity
• DIgnitability

What is the purpose of the Toxicity Characteristic Leaching Procedure (TCLP)?

• ATo determine if a waste is ignitable
• BTo simulate landfill conditions and test if contaminants leach at hazardous levels
• CTo measure the corrosivity of liquid waste
• DTo determine the flash point of a waste

Under RCRA, land disposal restrictions (LDR) require that hazardous waste must meet what standard before land disposal?

• ABest available technology standards
• BTreatment standards expressed as concentration levels or specified technologies
• CAir emission limits only
• DVolume reduction requirements

Which type of RCRA-regulated facility receives hazardous waste for treatment, storage, or disposal and must obtain a RCRA Part B permit?

• ALarge Quantity Generator
• BTransfer station
• CTreatment, Storage, and Disposal Facility (TSDF)
• DSmall Quantity Generator

Under RCRA, the 'mixture rule' states that:

• AAny mixture of a listed hazardous waste with a non-hazardous solid waste remains a hazard…
• BDiluting a hazardous waste with water removes its hazardous classification
• CTwo non-hazardous wastes mixed together always become hazardous
• DThe mixture must be tested for all four characteristics before classification

What is the EPA hazardous waste code for a waste that is ignitable?

• AD001
• BD002
• CD003
• DD004

Under RCRA Subtitle C, which of the following is an example of a K-listed hazardous waste?

• ASpent halogenated solvents
• BWastewater treatment sludge from electroplating operations
• CCommercial chemical products when discarded
• DAny waste exhibiting the ignitability characteristic

A Large Quantity Generator must complete hazardous waste training for all personnel within how many days of employment or assignment to a new position?

• A30 days
• B60 days
• C90 days
• D6 months

What is the primary purpose of RCRA's corrective action program?

• ATo issue fines for hazardous waste violations
• BTo clean up releases of hazardous waste or constituents from solid waste management units
• CTo regulate the transportation of hazardous materials
• DTo establish air emission standards for TSDFs

Under RCRA, which of the following is an example of a 'P-listed' acutely hazardous waste?

• ASpent non-halogenated solvents
• BWastewater treatment sludge from petroleum refining
• CDiscarded commercial chemical product of arsenic trioxide
• DUsed oil from automotive maintenance

RCRA Subtitle I regulates which of the following?

• AHazardous waste generators
• BMunicipal solid waste landfills
• CUnderground storage tanks
• DHazardous waste transporters

A generator must submit an exception report to the EPA or authorized state agency if it does not receive a signed copy of the manifest from the designated facility within how many days of shipment?

• A15 days
• B30 days
• C45 days
• D60 days

What is the minimum frequency for conducting RCRA hazardous waste inspections at a Large Quantity Generator's accumulation area?

• ADaily
• BWeekly
• CMonthly
• DQuarterly

Under RCRA, the 'contained-in' policy applies to:

• AEnvironmental media (soil, groundwater) contaminated with listed hazardous waste
• BContainers that previously held hazardous waste
• CFacilities that contain hazardous waste storage units
• DTransport vehicles carrying hazardous materials

Which RCRA provision allows a hazardous waste to be excluded from regulation if it is legitimately recycled?

• AThe mixture rule
• BThe derived-from rule
• CLegitimate recycling exclusion
• DThe delisting petition process

Under RCRA, a satellite accumulation area allows a generator to accumulate up to what quantity of hazardous waste at or near the point of generation?

• A55 gallons
• B110 gallons
• C330 gallons
• D500 gallons

A RCRA closure plan for a hazardous waste management unit must be submitted to the regulatory agency at least how many days before the expected closure date?

• A30 days
• B45 days
• C90 days
• D180 days

Under RCRA, used oil is:

• AAlways classified as a hazardous waste
• BManaged under separate used oil management standards (40 CFR Part 279)
• CExempt from all environmental regulations
• DRegulated as a P-listed acutely hazardous waste

What does RCRA's 'empty container' rule state about containers that held hazardous waste?

• AAll containers that held hazardous waste must be managed as hazardous waste indefinitely
• BContainers are considered empty when all material has been removed using common practices…
• CContainers must be triple-rinsed regardless of what they contained
• DOnly metal containers can be considered empty under RCRA

Under RCRA biennial reporting requirements, which generators must submit a Biennial Report (EPA Form 8700-13A/B)?

• AAll generators regardless of quantity
• BSmall Quantity Generators and Large Quantity Generators
• CLarge Quantity Generators only
• DOnly Treatment, Storage, and Disposal Facilities

Which federal law requires facilities to label containers of hazardous waste with the words 'HAZARDOUS WASTE' and the accumulation start date?

• AOSHA Hazard Communication Standard
• BDOT Hazardous Materials Regulations
• CRCRA generator accumulation requirements
• DCERCLA notification requirements

What is the purpose of RCRA's universal waste program?

• ATo regulate all wastes uniformly under one set of standards
• BTo provide streamlined hazardous waste management requirements for common, widely generat…
• CTo exempt certain hazardous wastes from all regulation
• DTo establish international waste trading standards

Under RCRA, what must a generator obtain before shipping hazardous waste off-site?

• AA state business license
• BAn EPA Identification Number (EPA ID)
• CA DOT operating authority number
• DA CERCLA cleanup authorization

Under RCRA, hazardous waste generators must maintain records of waste analyses, manifests, and inspection logs for at least how many years?

• A1 year
• B3 years
• C5 years
• D7 years

Which of the following is the primary purpose of the Clean Air Act (CAA)?

• ATo regulate the disposal of solid waste in landfills
• BTo protect and enhance the quality of the nation's air resources
• CTo establish drinking water quality standards
• DTo clean up contaminated industrial sites

Under the Clean Air Act, National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are established for how many criteria pollutants?

• AFour
• BSix
• CEight
• DTen

Under the Clean Air Act, a Title V operating permit is required for which facilities?

• AAny facility that emits any amount of air pollution
• BMajor sources that emit or have the potential to emit 100 tons per year or more of any cr…
• COnly coal-fired power plants
• DOnly facilities in nonattainment areas

What does the Clean Water Act's National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) regulate?

• AIndoor air quality in commercial buildings
• BPoint source discharges of pollutants to waters of the United States
• CUnderground injection of hazardous waste
• DDrinking water treatment standards

CERCLA (Superfund) is primarily designed to:

• ARegulate the generation of new hazardous waste
• BEstablish drinking water quality standards
• CAddress the cleanup of contaminated sites where hazardous substances have been released
• DRegulate air emissions from industrial facilities

Under CERCLA, which of the following parties can be held strictly, jointly, and severally liable for cleanup costs?

• AOnly the current operator of the facility
• BCurrent owners/operators, past owners/operators at time of disposal, generators, and tran…
• COnly the party that caused the contamination
• DOnly federal government agencies

The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) is administered by which federal agency?

• AOSHA
• BDOT
• CEPA
• DFDA

Under TSCA, the Lautenberg Chemical Safety Act of 2016 requires EPA to:

• ABan all synthetic chemicals
• BEvaluate existing chemicals for safety using a risk-based approach and review new chemica…
• CTransfer chemical regulation to the states
• DEliminate the TSCA Chemical Substance Inventory

The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires federal agencies to prepare an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) for:

• AAll federal projects regardless of environmental impact
• BMajor federal actions that significantly affect the quality of the human environment
• COnly projects that involve hazardous waste
• DState-funded projects in nonattainment areas

Under the Clean Water Act, what type of pollutant source does NOT require an NPDES permit?

• AAn industrial facility discharging through a pipe into a river
• BA municipal wastewater treatment plant
• CAgricultural stormwater runoff from a crop field
• DA concentrated animal feeding operation (CAFO)

The Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA) establishes which of the following?

• AEffluent limitations for industrial discharges
• BNational Primary Drinking Water Regulations (NPDWRs) for public water systems
• CAir quality standards for indoor environments
• DHazardous waste land disposal restrictions

EPCRA (Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act) requires facilities to report releases of hazardous substances exceeding reportable quantities to which entities?

• AOnly the facility's corporate headquarters
• BThe State Emergency Response Commission (SERC) and Local Emergency Planning Committee (LE…
• COnly the EPA National Response Center
• DOnly the local fire department

Under EPCRA Section 313, what is the annual reporting requirement known as?

• ABiennial Report
• BToxic Release Inventory (TRI)
• CTier II Chemical Inventory Report
• DRisk Management Plan

Which federal law regulates the manufacture, distribution, and use of pesticides in the United States?

• AToxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)
• BFederal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA)
• CClean Air Act (CAA)
• DResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

Under the Clean Air Act, New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) apply to:

• AExisting sources of air pollution only
• BNew or modified stationary sources of air pollution in specific source categories
• CMobile sources such as automobiles only
• DSources below major source thresholds only

Under the Clean Water Act, what are the three categories of pollutants regulated under effluent guidelines?

• ASolid, liquid, and gaseous pollutants
• BConventional, toxic, and nonconventional pollutants
• CPrimary, secondary, and tertiary pollutants
• DPoint source, nonpoint source, and area source pollutants

Under CERCLA, the National Priorities List (NPL) is used to:

• ARank the most contaminated Superfund sites for long-term remedial action
• BList all chemicals that require Toxic Release Inventory reporting
• CPrioritize OSHA workplace inspections
• DIdentify facilities requiring Title V air permits