ANAC Commercial Pilot Airplane Theoretical Exam (PCA, Argentina)

Under RAAC 61.630, which activity is a stated privilege of a Piloto Comercial de Avión (PCA), subject to the appropriate category, class, type, and operational authorizations?

• AActing as Pilot in Command (PIC) of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport opera…
• BOperating as Pilot in Command under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) in Class A airspace wit…
• CExercising pilot privileges on international flights without maintaining an aeronautical…
• DConducting commercial passenger flights in any aircraft type regardless of whether an app…

Which Aeronautical Medical Certificate (CMA - Certificado Médico Aeronáutico) class must be valid when a pilot exercises the privileges of an Argentine Piloto Comercial de Avión (PCA) license?

• ACMA Clase 2
• BCMA Clase 1
• CCMA Clase 3
• DEither Clase 1 or Clase 2, solely at the pilot's choice

Under RAAC 61.140, what recent experience permits a pilot to act as PIC of a single-pilot airplane at night?

• AWithin the preceding 60 days, have logged at least 5 night cross-country hours and 3 touc…
• BWithin the preceding 90 days, have logged at least 3 daytime takeoffs and landings and 1…
• CWithin the preceding 180 days, have performed at least 3 night takeoffs and 3 full-stop n…
• DWithin the preceding 180 days, have completed at least 6 hours of instrument flight time…

According to RAAC 91.167 (Combustible de Reserva para Vuelos IFR), when filing an IFR flight plan in a propeller-driven airplane with an alternate airport required, what is the mandatory minimum fuel that must be on board at takeoff?

• AFuel to fly to the destination airport, plus 10% contingency fuel, plus 30 minutes of res…
• BFuel to fly directly to the alternate airport, plus 45 minutes of reserve at maximum endu…
• CFuel to fly to the destination airport, plus a fixed 60-minute holding reserve at standar…
• DFuel to fly to the destination airport, then to the specified alternate airport, and ther…

What altimeter-setting change is made when climbing through the transition altitude published for the operation in current Argentine aeronautical information?

• AThe altimeter pressure subscale is set from the local aerodrome QNH to the standard press…
• BThe altimeter subscale remains on local QNH until reaching the assigned cruising altitude…
• CThe altimeter is adjusted to local QFE to indicate height above aerodrome elevation throu…
• DThe altimeter setting is maintained at standard 1013.2 hPa on the ground and only changed…

Under RAAC 61.620, what total airplane flight time is normally required for a commercial-pilot applicant, and what approved-course alternative is stated?

• A100 hours normally, or 70 in any flight school
• B200 hours normally, or 150 when accumulated in an approved or recognized integrated course
• C250 hours with no approved-course alternative
• D500 hours, reduced to 300 for instrument-rated pilots

Under RAAC 61.620, what minimum airplane PIC time is included within the commercial-pilot total-hours requirement?

• A50 hours in every pathway
• B70 hours normally and 50 in an approved course
• C100 hours normally, or 70 in an approved or recognized course
• D150 hours as PIC in every pathway

Under the Argentine Código Aeronáutico (Ley 17.285, Artículos 79 y 81), who holds supreme operational, disciplinary, and safety authority aboard an aircraft from the moment flight preparations begin until the aircraft is handed over to competent authority at the destination?

• AThe ANAC flight dispatcher assigned to the departure aerodrome.
• BThe chief executive officer (CEO) of the commercial air operator.
• CThe senior air traffic controller on duty in the relevant FIR.
• DThe Pilot in Command / Flight Commander (Comandante de la aeronave).

Under the Argentine Código Aeronáutico (Ley 17.285) and ANAC registration standards, what do the Argentine aircraft nationality and registration marks 'LV' and 'LQ' designate?

• A'LV' designates Argentine private and commercial civil aircraft, while 'LQ' designates Ar…
• B'LV' designates international commercial airliners only, while 'LQ' designates general av…
• C'LV' designates military aircraft, while 'LQ' designates all civil flight training aircra…
• D'LV' designates piston-engine aircraft, while 'LQ' designates turboprop and turbojet airc…

Under Argentine Ley 27.514, which independent national multimodal organization is legally responsible for investigating civil aviation accidents and serious incidents to determine technical causes and issue safety recommendations?

• AAdministración Nacional de Aviación Civil (ANAC).
• BJunta de Seguridad en el Transporte (JST).
• CEmpresa Argentina de Navegación Aérea (EANA S.A.).
• DFuerza Aérea Argentina (FAA).

Which set of basic eligibility requirements appears in RAAC 61.605 for a commercial-pilot applicant?

• AAge 16, primary education, and no medical certificate
• BAge 18, Spanish proficiency, completed secondary education, the applicable CMA, a theory…
• CAge 21 and a university aviation degree only
• DAny age if 200 flight hours have been logged

Which operational-knowledge subjects are expressly included in the commercial-pilot outline in RAAC 61.610?

• AOnly aircraft paint standards and passenger ticketing
• BOnly international customs procedures
• COnly aerobatic competition rules
• DOperational procedures, carriage of cargo and dangerous goods, passenger safety briefings…

Under RAAC 91.179, when operating in level cruising flight under Visual Flight Rules (VFR) above 3,000 ft AGL on a magnetic track of 090° in Argentine airspace, what cruising altitude or flight level must the pilot maintain?

• AOdd thousands of feet plus 500 feet (e.g., 5,500 ft, 7,500 ft, FL 055, FL 075).
• BEven thousands of feet plus 500 feet (e.g., 4,500 ft, 6,500 ft, FL 065, FL 085).
• CAny odd thousand-foot altitude without the 500-foot increment (e.g., 5,000 ft, 7,000 ft).
• DAny even thousand-foot altitude without the 500-foot increment (e.g., 4,000 ft, 6,000 ft).

Under RAAC 91.179, when operating under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) in controlled airspace on a magnetic track of 270° in Argentine airspace, which flight levels are appropriate?

• AOdd Flight Levels (e.g., FL 050, FL 070, FL 090, FL 110).
• BEven Flight Levels (e.g., FL 060, FL 080, FL 100, FL 120).
• CEven Flight Levels plus 500 feet (e.g., FL 065, FL 085, FL 105).
• DOdd Flight Levels plus 500 feet (e.g., FL 055, FL 075, FL 095).

In Argentine airspace (AIP Argentina ENR 1.4), what are the flight rules and separation provisions applied to flights operating within Class A airspace?

• ABoth IFR and VFR flights are permitted, but VFR flights only receive flight information s…
• BVFR flights are permitted provided they maintain continuous two-way radio contact and 5 k…
• COnly IFR flights are permitted; all flights are provided with air traffic control service…
• DOnly military transport and scheduled commercial air carrier aircraft are authorized to e…

What does the May 2026 RAAC 61.610 commercial-pilot outline say about official topic percentages?

• AIt assigns exactly 18% to law and 17% to aircraft systems
• BIt requires equal numbers of questions in every subject
• CIt publishes a six-domain percentage blueprint for TCEXAM
• DIt lists knowledge areas but does not publish percentages; this practice bank's category…

Which statement correctly describes the final proficiency assessment for an Argentine commercial-pilot applicant under RAAC 61.605?

• AIt is a flight-proficiency test in the applicable aircraft category and includes the appl…
• BIt is only the 100-question TCEXAM theory session.
• CIt is an English-only written essay with no flight demonstration.
• DIt is waived whenever the applicant has 200 flight hours.

In the Argentine Republic, which company is the public air-navigation-service provider for services including ATS, AIS, COM, and CNS?

• AIntercargo S.A.U.
• BEmpresa Argentina de Navegación Aérea (EANA S.A.).
• CAerolíneas Argentinas S.A.
• DOrganismo Regulador del Sistema Nacional de Aeropuertos (ORSNA).

On a conventional twin-engine aircraft with clockwise-rotating propellers (as viewed from behind the cockpit), why is the left engine designated as the critical engine?

• AThe left engine produces 20% more horsepower than the right engine during full-throttle t…
• BThe left engine directly drives the primary hydraulic landing gear pump and electrical al…
• CFailure of the left engine produces the most adverse yawing and rolling moments due to P-…
• DThe right engine produces an opposite gyroscopic precession that completely cancels yaw d…

For a conventional multi-engine airplane, how does moving the Center of Gravity (CG) toward its most aft allowable limit generally affect Minimum Control Speed Airborne (Vmc)?

• AVmc decreases because the wing generates less induced drag with an aft CG.
• BVmc remains unchanged because Vmc depends exclusively on engine horsepower and density al…
• CVmc decreases because reduced tailplane download enhances directional aerodynamic stabili…
• DVmc increases because the rudder moment arm to the CG is shortened, reducing the aerodyna…

After an engine failure in a conventional light twin, why does the approved zero-sideslip technique normally use a small bank toward the operating engine rather than wings-level flight?

• AThe small bank supplies a horizontal lift component that helps balance asymmetric thrust,…
• BVmc decreases because aerodynamic lift is aligned purely vertically with gravity.
• CSingle-engine climb performance is maximized because both wings generate symmetrical indu…
• DThe rudder deflection required to maintain heading is reduced to zero.

On the airspeed indicator of a light multi-engine piston aircraft, what aerodynamic speed is marked by the blue radial line?

• ABest angle of climb single-engine speed (Vxse).
• BBest rate of climb single-engine speed (Vyse).
• CMinimum control speed airborne (Vmc).
• DMaximum landing gear extension speed (Vlo).

A commercial multi-engine aircraft has main landing gear tires inflated to 100 psi. Using the commonly cited rotating-tire dynamic-hydroplaning approximation Vp = 9 × √(tire pressure in psi), what is the estimated speed?

• A75 knots.
• B81 knots.
• C90 knots.
• D100 knots.

An aircraft has a wings-level unaccelerated stall speed (Vs) of 60 knots CAS. In a coordinated, constant-altitude 60° banked level turn where the load factor is n = 2.0 G (since n = 1 / cos(60°) = 2.0), what is the new accelerated stalling speed?

• A60 knots.
• B72 knots.
• C120 knots.
• DApproximately 85 knots (84.8 knots CAS).

In conventional reciprocating multi-engine airplane performance terminology, how is the single-engine service ceiling defined?

• AThe density altitude at which the aircraft is capable of maintaining a maximum rate of cl…
• BThe absolute altitude where the single-engine rate of climb drops to exactly zero feet pe…
• CThe maximum altitude where the aircraft can maintain a 100 feet per minute climb with bot…
• DThe pressure altitude where Vmc equals the stalling speed in the clean configuration.

How does an unfeathered, windmilling propeller generally affect a twin-engine airplane after an engine failure compared with a feathered propeller?

• AIt provides a stabilizing gyroscopic effect that decreases the required rudder pedal forc…
• BIt creates substantial drag and additional yaw toward the inoperative engine, reducing si…
• CIt generates auxiliary boundary-layer airflow over the wing that improves the single-engi…
• DIt has virtually no impact on single-engine performance provided the throttle on the dead…

A hypothetical published instrument departure requires a minimum climb gradient of 4.5%. If groundspeed during the climb is 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb is required?

• A450 fpm.
• B525 fpm.
• C638 fpm (calculated as 140 × 4.5 × 1.013 ≈ 638 fpm).
• D750 fpm.

In the conventional drag model, what condition exists at maximum lift-to-drag ratio (L/D_max), and what happens to total drag as airspeed is reduced below that point?

• AAt maximum structural cruising speed (Vno); below this speed, total drag is zero.
• BAt power-off stalling speed (Vs1); below this speed, parasite drag dominates total drag.
• CAt the speed where skin friction drag reaches its maximum value; below this speed, induce…
• DAt the speed where parasite drag equals induced drag; below it, increasing induced drag c…

What aerodynamic phenomenon occurs when an airplane operates within one wingspan height above the runway surface during takeoff or landing?

• AGround effect reduces wingtip vortex formation and downwash, significantly decreasing ind…
• BGround effect increases induced drag and causes the aircraft to stall at a substantially…
• CGround effect creates severe wingtip turbulence that eliminates elevator control effectiv…
• DGround effect increases parasite drag due to surface friction against runway pavement.

For an airplane whose approved takeoff data use V1, which statement best describes that speed's performance meaning?

• AThe speed at which the nosewheel is rotated off the runway surface during a normal all-en…
• BIt is the maximum speed by which the first action to stop must be taken within the accele…
• CThe speed at which the aircraft attains 50 feet obstacle clearance height with all engine…
• DThe maximum airspeed permitted with takeoff flaps extended in smooth air.

An airport runway has a physical paved length of 2,400 meters, an aligned stopway of 300 meters at the departure end, and no clearway. What is the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA) for commercial transport takeoff performance calculations?

• A2,100 meters (Runway length minus stopway).
• B2,400 meters (Runway length only).
• C2,700 meters (Runway length 2,400 m + Stopway 300 m).
• D3,000 meters (Runway length + double stopway buffer).

How do high ambient temperatures and high field elevation (high density altitude) affect the takeoff performance and engine output of a normally aspirated multi-engine aircraft?

• AThey increase engine manifold pressure and shorten the required ground roll.
• BThey increase air density, allowing earlier liftoff at lower true airspeeds.
• CThey have no impact on reciprocating piston horsepower as long as the fuel mixture is set…
• DThey reduce air density, diminishing engine horsepower output, reducing propeller thrust…

What is the aerodynamic definition of the Critical Mach Number (M_crit) of an aircraft?

• AThe free-stream flight Mach number at which airflow over the point of maximum camber on t…
• BThe Mach number at which the entire aircraft is flying at supersonic speed and shock wave…
• CThe maximum structural operating Mach limit (M_MO) published in the Aircraft Flight Manua…
• DThe speed at which the aircraft encounters maximum dynamic pressure (Vne/Mne) during a hi…

What is a primary aerodynamic advantage of swept wings on high-speed commercial aircraft, and what is an associated undesirable low-speed handling characteristic?

• ASwept wings maximize low-speed lift coefficients but completely eliminate Dutch roll osci…
• BSwept wings increase the critical Mach number by reducing the effective chordwise velocit…
• CSwept wings eliminate parasite drag entirely at transonic speeds but cause severe adverse…
• DSwept wings reduce stall speeds in ground effect while preventing Dutch roll yaw-roll cou…

During an aerodynamic spin, what condition exists on the wings, and which recovery source has priority?

• AOnly the inboard wing is stalled while the outboard wing generates supersonic lift; recov…
• BNeither wing is stalled because rotation is driven purely by gyroscopic engine precession…
• CBoth wings are stalled to different degrees and the aircraft autorotates; use the aircraf…
• DThe aircraft is in an unstalled high-speed spiral dive; recovery requires full aft elevat…

In one common full-feathering propeller architecture, what can drive the blades toward high pitch when governor oil pressure is reduced?

• AEngine intake manifold vacuum and aerodynamic spinner drag.
• BReversible electric servo motors located inside the hollow crankshaft.
• CHigh-pressure engine lubricating oil delivered directly by the main oil pump.
• DA design-specific combination such as counterweights, springs, or a gas charge, as descri…

In a full-feathering propeller system fitted with anti-feathering latches, what is their purpose during a normal ground shutdown?

• ATo prevent the propeller from feathering automatically during routine engine shutdown on…
• BTo force the propeller into feather immediately whenever engine oil temperature exceeds r…
• CTo lock the propeller into reverse thrust pitch during high-speed landing rollouts on wet…
• DTo prevent governor flyweights from rotating faster than engine crankshaft RPM.

What is the primary operational function of an unfeathering accumulator in a multi-engine training and commercial aircraft?

• AIt acts as a backup fuel reservoir for the mechanical fuel pump during aerobatic maneuver…
• BIt stores high-pressure governor oil during normal operation to rapidly force the propell…
• CIt cools engine oil before it enters the propeller hub dome to prevent thermal cavitation.
• DIt dumps engine oil overboard to immediately freeze the crankshaft during catastrophic en…

What is the primary safety function of the landing gear safety switch (squat switch / weight-on-wheels switch) installed on the landing gear strut of a complex aircraft?

• AIt illuminates the three green gear-down indicator lights when airspeed exceeds 140 knots.
• BIt automatically extends wing flaps to full deflection when the main gear touches down.
• CIt opens the electrical circuit to the landing gear retract mechanism when strut compress…
• DIt applies emergency pneumatic wheel braking if nosewheel steering disconnects during tax…

In the event of a total hydraulic pump or electrical failure in an aircraft equipped with hydraulically actuated retractable landing gear, how does the emergency landing gear extension system typically function?

• AIt uses high-pressure bleed air from the pneumatic de-icing system to fire hydraulic pist…
• BIt reverses engine starter motors to mechanically crank the landing gear actuators downwa…
• CIt pressurizes fuel return lines to force the hydraulic control valves open.
• DIt releases hydraulic fluid pressure and uplocks, allowing the landing gear to free-fall…

In an aircraft turbocharger system, what is the operational role of the wastegate, and how is the engine's 'critical altitude' defined?

• AThe wastegate modulates the volume of engine exhaust gases directed across the turbine wh…
• BThe wastegate vents excess fuel vapor from fuel injectors; critical altitude is the altit…
• CThe wastegate controls cooling airflow into the intercooler; critical altitude is the alt…
• DThe wastegate regulates cabin pressurization airflow; critical altitude is the altitude w…

In a pressurized aircraft cabin, what component is the primary active modulating device responsible for maintaining and regulating the desired cabin pressure altitude and cabin rate of climb/descent?

• AThe turbocharger wastegate actuator.
• BThe cabin outflow valve (válvula de salida y control de presurización).
• CThe pneumatic de-icing distributor valve.
• DThe instrument suction vacuum regulator.

In a typical pressurization system, what are the respective protective functions of positive- and negative-pressure relief valves?

• AThe fuel jettison dump valve and the engine oil bypass check valve.
• BThe ram air ventilation flap and the crew oxygen dilution demand valve.
• CThe positive pressure relief valve (prevents exceeding maximum allowable cabin differenti…
• DThe hydraulic thermal expansion relief valve and the engine bleed check valve.

What is the recommended operational procedure for cycling leading-edge pneumatic de-icing boots when operating an aircraft equipped with modern pneumatic systems in icing conditions?

• AKeep the boots continuously pressurized at full inflation pressure throughout the entire…
• BNever activate the boots until at least 2 inches of solid ice has built up on the leading…
• CDeflate the boots completely, turn off all avionics, and accelerate past Vne to melt ice…
• DActivate the system at the first sign of ice accretion in accordance with the AFM/POH, al…

How does a TKS 'weeping wing' fluid ice protection system prevent and remove structural ice accretion on aerodynamic leading edges?

• AIt pumps an ethylene/propylene glycol-based freezing-point depressant fluid through micro…
• BIt circulates superheated engine exhaust gas inside hollow leading-edge spars to melt ice…
• CIt uses piezoelectric transducers to vibrate the wing skin at ultrasonic frequencies to s…
• DIt sprays high-pressure compressed nitrogen gas through wingtips to aerodynamically defle…

If the pitot tube ram air opening becomes completely blocked by ice while its drain hole and the static ports remain open, what will the Airspeed Indicator (ASI) indicate?

• AThe airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, indicating an increase in airspeed durin…
• BThe airspeed indicator will bleed down to zero knots as trapped ram air pressure escapes…
• CThe airspeed indicator will freeze exactly at the last indicated airspeed and never chang…
• DThe airspeed indicator will immediately jump to maximum redline airspeed (Vne).

After flight through precipitation, a multi-engine airplane develops strong radio interference; inspection later finds missing static-discharge wicks and a damaged bonding jumper. Which statement correctly distinguishes the functions of those components?

• AStatic wicks supply pitot heat, while bonding jumpers carry pneumatic pressure between in…
• BStatic wicks provide controlled discharge points for accumulated charge; bonding jumpers…
• CBonding jumpers intentionally isolate control surfaces electrically, while static wicks s…
• DBoth components exist only to make the airframe immune to a direct lightning strike.