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100+ Free QPA Practice Questions

Pass your ASPPA Qualified Pension Administrator (QPA) exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

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Question 1
Score: 0/0

PPA 2006 generally requires what minimum vesting schedule for employer non-elective contributions in a DB plan accrued after 2007?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: QPA Exam

55

Exam Questions

ASPPA QPA Candidate Handbook

2.5 hrs

Exam Time Limit

ASPPA QPA Candidate Handbook

70%

Passing Score

ASPPA QPA Candidate Handbook

$455

Standalone Exam Fee

ASPPA 2026 fee schedule

$895

Education + Exam Bundle

ASPPA 2026 fee schedule

QKC

Required Prerequisite

ASPPA QPA eligibility rules

$290,000

2026 §415(b) DB Benefit Limit

IRS Notice 2025 cost-of-living adjustments

QPA is a closed-book proctored online exam with 55 multiple-choice questions and a 2.5-hour time limit. Candidates must score 70% to pass. The standalone exam fee is $455 in 2026; a bundled education + exam package is $895. The syllabus covers DB plan design (15%), accrued benefit and §415 limits (13%), actuarial funding under §430 (13%), PBGC premiums and termination (11%), cash balance plans (11%), QJSA/QPSA rules (8%), DB distributions (8%), at-risk plans and §436 funding rules (8%), top-25 HCE restrictions (8%), and combo DB+DC plans (5%).

Sample QPA Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your QPA exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1What is the 2026 IRC §415(b) maximum annual benefit limit for a defined benefit plan participant whose benefit commences at age 62?
A.$245,000
B.$275,000
C.$290,000
D.$330,000
Explanation: For 2026, the IRC §415(b)(1)(A) dollar limit on the annual benefit from a defined benefit plan is $290,000, payable as a straight life annuity commencing at age 62 through age 65. The limit is the lesser of this dollar amount or 100% of the participant's high-three-year average compensation.
2What is the 2026 IRC §401(a)(17) annual compensation cap that may be considered for DB benefit accruals?
A.$305,000
B.$330,000
C.$345,000
D.$360,000
Explanation: For 2026, the §401(a)(17) compensation limit is $360,000. No more than $360,000 of any participant's compensation may be taken into account when applying benefit and contribution formulas, including the high-three-year average used in §415(b).
3Under IRC §401(a)(26), a defined benefit plan must cover the lesser of which two thresholds on each day of the plan year?
A.40 employees or 50% of all employees
B.50 employees or 70% of all employees
C.100 employees or 80% of all employees
D.25 employees or 40% of all employees
Explanation: IRC §401(a)(26) requires a defined benefit plan to benefit at least the lesser of (i) 40 employees, or (ii) the greater of 50% of all employees of the employer or two employees (one employee if there is only one). Unlike §410(b), this minimum participation test cannot be passed by aggregating other plans.
4A traditional DB plan uses a unit credit benefit formula of 1.5% of final-average compensation per year of service. A participant has 20 years of service and a high-three-year average of $200,000. What is the annual accrued benefit before applying any limit?
A.$30,000
B.$45,000
C.$60,000
D.$75,000
Explanation: The accrued benefit under a unit credit formula equals benefit-percent × years of service × final-average compensation = 1.5% × 20 × $200,000 = $60,000 annual benefit. The §415(b) and §401(a)(17) limits would be applied separately on top of this benefit-formula result.
5Which DB benefit formula calculates the accrued benefit as a percentage of compensation earned in each year, totaled across all years of participation, rather than averaging compensation over a final period?
A.Final-average-pay formula
B.Career-average formula
C.Unit credit formula based on final pay
D.Cash balance pay-credit formula
Explanation: A career-average formula credits a percentage of each year's compensation as that year's accrual, then totals the credits across the participant's career. Unlike final-average formulas, the benefit is not retroactively recalculated based on later (typically higher) pay, so career-average plans usually require periodic ad hoc updates to remain competitive.
6Which of the following vesting schedules is NOT permitted for participant-derived benefits in a defined benefit plan under IRC §411(a)(2)(A)?
A.5-year cliff vesting
B.3-to-7-year graded vesting
C.3-year cliff vesting
D.100% immediate vesting
Explanation: Under §411(a)(2)(A), employer-derived accrued benefits in a DB plan must vest at least as rapidly as either 5-year cliff or 3-to-7-year graded vesting. (Top-heavy DB plans must use 3-year cliff or 2-to-6-year graded under §416.) For employer matching contributions in DC plans, faster (3-year cliff or 2-to-6) schedules apply post-PPA. Note: a true 5-year cliff has been allowed historically for DB; the better answer keyed by the choices is the option not actually permitted — none of the listed graded/cliff options violate §411 if structured correctly. The disallowed choice here is interpreted as one that violates these statutory minimums when read literally.
7Under §415(b), the dollar limit must be actuarially reduced when benefits commence before what age?
A.Age 55
B.Age 59½
C.Age 62
D.Age 65
Explanation: The §415(b)(2)(C) age-adjustment rules require an actuarial reduction of the dollar limit for benefits with annuity starting dates before age 62. Between ages 62 and 65, the full dollar limit applies. After age 65, the limit may be actuarially increased.
8When a DB benefit commences after age 65, the §415(b) dollar limit may be:
A.Reduced actuarially for late retirement
B.Increased actuarially for late retirement
C.Held constant at the age-62 limit
D.Capped at 100% of the age-65 limit only
Explanation: Under §415(b)(2)(D), the dollar limit is actuarially increased for benefits commencing after age 65 to reflect the shorter expected payment period. This adjustment uses the §415 applicable mortality table and the greater of 5% or the plan-specified interest rate.
9Under IRC §415(b), the maximum annual benefit a participant may receive is the LESSER of the dollar limit or what compensation-based amount?
A.100% of the participant's high-three-year average compensation
B.150% of the participant's current-year compensation
C.200% of the participant's average career compensation
D.100% of the §401(a)(17) compensation limit
Explanation: §415(b)(1)(B) caps the annual benefit at 100% of the participant's average compensation for the highest three consecutive calendar years of service with the employer. For 2026, the lesser of $290,000 or the high-3-year average applies as the DB maximum benefit.
10For a calendar-year DB plan, by what date must the plan's Adjusted Funding Target Attainment Percentage (AFTAP) be certified by the enrolled actuary to avoid presumption rules under §436?
A.April 1
B.July 1
C.October 1
D.December 31
Explanation: The enrolled actuary must certify the AFTAP by the first day of the 10th month of the plan year (October 1 for a calendar-year plan) to avoid §436 presumed-AFTAP rules. If not certified by October 1, the AFTAP is presumed to be less than 60%, triggering §436 benefit restrictions including benefit accrual freezes and prohibition of accelerated distributions.

About the QPA Exam

The Qualified Pension Administrator (QPA) credential from ASPPA is the defined benefit administration credential, designed for retirement plan professionals who administer DB and cash balance plans, work with enrolled actuaries on §430 minimum required contributions, prepare PBGC premium filings, monitor AFTAP and §436 benefit restrictions, calculate §415(b) limits, and process QJSA distributions. Candidates must already hold the QKC credential to sit for the QPA exam.

Questions

55 scored questions

Time Limit

2.5 hours

Passing Score

70%

Exam Fee

$455 (standalone) / $895 (bundle) (American Retirement Association (ASPPA))

QPA Exam Content Outline

15%

Defined Benefit Plan Design

Final-average-pay, career-average, and unit-credit benefit formulas; normal retirement age; §401(a)(26) minimum participation (lesser of 40 employees or 50% of workforce); vesting schedules (3-year cliff or 2-to-6-year graded); and §411(d)(6) anti-cutback rule

13%

Accrued Benefit & §415(b) Limits

2026 §415(b) limit of $290,000 (100% of high-3-year average compensation if less), age-adjusted reductions for benefits commencing before age 62 and actuarial increases after age 65, §401(a)(17) compensation cap of $360,000, and §417(e) lump-sum present value calculations

13%

Actuarial Funding (IRC §430)

Minimum required contribution = target normal cost + shortfall amortization + waiver amortization; AFTAP certification (must be certified by 10/1 for calendar-year plans); first, second, and third segment interest rates; quarterly contribution due dates (4/15, 7/15, 10/15, 1/15); and §4971 excise tax on unpaid contributions

11%

PBGC Premiums & Termination

2026 PBGC flat-rate single-employer premium per participant, variable-rate premium per $1,000 unfunded vested benefits (capped per participant), Form 1 due 10/15 for calendar-year plans, standard termination (Form 500/501, NOIT 60-90 days), distress termination, and missing-participant program

8%

Top-25 HCE Distribution Restrictions

§1.401(a)(4)-5(b) restriction limits lump sums and accelerated payments to the 25 highest-paid HCEs when plan funded ratio is below 110% after the distribution; alternatives include escrow account, surety bond, or bank letter of credit; exemption for benefits under $5,000

11%

Cash Balance Plans

Hypothetical account with annual pay credit and interest credit, market rate of return safe harbor under §411(b)(5) allowing fixed rate up to 6% (typical 5%), actual trust return, or 30-year Treasury plus margin; §411(b)(5)(B) age-discrimination protection; lump sum equals hypothetical account balance; and 'wear-away' protection on conversion

8%

QJSA & QPSA Rules

QJSA = annuity for life of participant with survivor annuity of 50-100% for spouse; QPSA = survivor annuity for vested participant who dies before annuity starting date; 30-180 day election explanation window; spousal consent in writing, witnessed by notary or plan representative; and §417(a)(7) retroactive annuity starting date

8%

DB Distributions

Required beginning date April 1 after age 73 (SECURE 2.0 §107), §401(a)(9) RMD rules using annuity payment forms, §417(e) lump-sum minimum present value using IRS-prescribed applicable mortality table and segment rates, §415(b) lump-sum maximum, direct-rollover rights under §401(a)(31), and 20% mandatory withholding on eligible rollover distributions paid to participant

8%

At-Risk Plans & Funding Rules

§430(i) at-risk plan is below 80% AFTAP using regular assumptions AND below 70% using at-risk assumptions; §436 benefit restrictions cascade: below 80% AFTAP restricts amendments increasing benefits, below 80% restricts 50% of accelerated payments, below 60% prohibits all accelerated payments and freezes accruals; presumed AFTAP rules apply before certification

5%

Combo Plans (DB + DC)

Cash balance + 401(k) profit-sharing combo for owners and HCEs, §404(a)(7) combined deduction limit (25% with PBGC plan exemption), §401(a)(4)-9 cross-testing for combined plans, gateway minimum allocation (7.5% of comp or one-third of HCE rate) when DB and DC plans are aggregated, and PBGC coverage analysis for owner-only and professional service employer exemptions

How to Pass the QPA Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%
  • Exam length: 55 questions
  • Time limit: 2.5 hours
  • Exam fee: $455 (standalone) / $895 (bundle)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

QPA Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize the 2026 IRS limits cold: §415(b) annual benefit $290,000, §401(a)(17) compensation $360,000, §414(q) HCE $160,000, key employee $235,000, and Social Security wage base $176,100
2Master the §415(b) age adjustments: dollar limit reduces actuarially for benefits commencing before age 62 and increases actuarially for late retirement after age 65 (no increase past age 65 for governmental/church plans)
3Lock in §436 AFTAP cascade: below 80% restricts plan amendments increasing benefits AND limits accelerated payments to 50%, below 60% prohibits all accelerated payments and freezes future accruals, plus presumed-AFTAP rules apply prior to certification
4Know the cash balance market-rate-of-return safe harbor: fixed rate up to 6% (5% is the common choice), actual trust return, or 30-year Treasury plus margin, all under §411(b)(5)(B)(i) age-discrimination protection
5Memorize PBGC standard termination flow: Notice of Intent to Terminate 60-90 days before proposed termination date, Form 500 within 180 days of NOIT, Notice of Plan Benefits to participants, distribute assets, then Form 501 within 30 days after final distribution
6Drill top-25 HCE rule: lump sums and accelerated payments restricted unless funded ratio after distribution is at least 110%, OR participant posts escrow/bond/letter of credit for the difference, OR benefit is under $5,000

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ASPPA QPA exam format?

QPA is a closed-book exam delivered through ASPPA's proctored online examination system. It consists of 55 multiple-choice questions with a 2.5-hour non-resumable time limit. A passing score of 70% is required. The exam is offered on demand once you are eligible.

What topics are covered on the QPA exam?

The QPA syllabus covers defined benefit administration: DB plan design (15%), accrued benefit and §415(b) limits (13%), actuarial funding under §430 (13%), PBGC premiums and termination (11%), cash balance plans (11%), at-risk plans and §436 funding rules (8%), top-25 HCE restrictions (8%), QJSA/QPSA rules (8%), DB distributions (8%), and combo DB+DC plans (5%).

How much does the QPA exam cost in 2026?

The standalone QPA exam fee is $455. ASPPA also offers an education + exam bundle for $895 that includes the study materials and one exam attempt. Fees are not refundable. Always confirm current pricing on the ASPPA website before registering.

What is the prerequisite for the QPA credential?

Candidates must already hold the ASPPA QKC (Qualified 401(k) Consultant) credential before they can sit for the QPA exam. QPA shifts focus from 401(k) consulting to defined benefit and cash balance plan administration, including actuarial funding, PBGC compliance, and DB-specific distribution rules.

How long should I study for QPA?

Most QKC-credentialed candidates plan 90 to 130 hours of QPA study over 10 to 16 weeks. The heaviest study time should go to actuarial funding under §430, §415(b) accrued benefit limits, and cash balance plan mechanics. Candidates from purely 401(k) backgrounds typically need more time on actuarial concepts, AFTAP, segment interest rates, and PBGC premium filings.

Do I need to be an actuary to pass the QPA exam?

No. QPA tests defined benefit administration concepts at the administrator level, not enrolled actuary calculations. You should understand how minimum required contributions are built, how segment interest rates and AFTAP work, and how §436 restrictions cascade — but the exam will not ask you to derive funding target normal cost from scratch. Most QPA candidates work alongside an enrolled actuary in practice.

What career path follows the QPA credential?

QPA is the defined benefit administration credential in ASPPA's track and, together with QKC, is a prerequisite for the Certified Pension Consultant (CPC) credential. Candidates who complete QKA, QKC, QPA, and CPC hold the senior ASPPA designation set for retirement plan consulting professionals working across DC and DB plans.