200+ Free CPNP-PC Practice Questions

Pass your PNCB Certified Pediatric Nurse Practitioner - Primary Care exam on the first try — instant access, no signup required.

✓ No registration✓ No credit card✓ No hidden fees✓ Start practicing immediately

80% Pass Rate

200+ Questions

100% Free

1 / 200

Question 1

Score: 0/0

A 6-month-old infant is at the clinic for a well-child visit. The parents ask when they can expect their baby to sit without support. Which response by the nurse practitioner is most accurate?

Most infants sit without support by 4-6 months

Most infants sit without support by 6-8 months

Most infants sit without support by 9-10 months

Most infants sit without support by 12 months

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CPNP-PC Exam

80%

First-Time Pass Rate

PNCB 2023

175

Total Questions

150 scored

400

Passing Score

Scaled 200-800

Exam Time

Single session

35%

Assessment Domain

Largest section

$395

Exam Fee

PNCB

The CPNP-PC exam has an 80% first-time pass rate (PNCB 2023). The exam contains 175 multiple-choice questions (150 scored) over 3 hours. Content follows the PNCB blueprint with Assessment and Diagnosis (35%), Health Maintenance and Promotion (30%), Management (30%), and Professional Roles and Responsibilities (5%). Certified Pediatric Nurse Practitioners in primary care are in high demand in pediatric clinics, school-based health centers, and community health settings.

Sample CPNP-PC Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CPNP-PC exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 200+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 6-month-old infant is at the clinic for a well-child visit. The parents ask when they can expect their baby to sit without support. Which response by the nurse practitioner is most accurate?

A.Most infants sit without support by 4-6 months

B.Most infants sit without support by 6-8 months

C.Most infants sit without support by 9-10 months

D.Most infants sit without support by 12 months

Explanation: Most infants achieve the milestone of sitting without support by 6-8 months of age. At 4-6 months, infants typically can sit with support, but independent sitting requires stronger trunk control and develops around 6-8 months. By 9-10 months, infants are usually crawling or pulling to stand, and by 12 months, many are walking independently or with support.

2During a 2-year-old's well-child visit, the parents express concern that their child only has about 50 words and is not combining words. Which action should the nurse practitioner take?

A.Reassure the parents that this is normal for a 2-year-old

B.Refer immediately to speech-language pathology

C.Conduct further developmental screening and schedule follow-up

D.Recommend the parents read more books to the child

Explanation: By 24 months, children typically have a vocabulary of 50+ words and begin combining two words. A child with only 50 words and no word combinations at age 2 falls below expected milestones. The nurse practitioner should conduct further screening (such as Ages & Stages Questionnaire or M-CHAT-R/F), document findings, and schedule a follow-up visit to monitor progress. Early intervention is most effective when initiated promptly.

3A mother brings her 4-month-old infant for a well visit. She asks when she should introduce solid foods. What is the current evidence-based recommendation?

A.Introduce solids at 3-4 months to improve sleep

B.Introduce solids at 4-6 months when showing readiness cues

C.Wait until 6 months of age exclusively

D.Delay until 9-12 months to reduce allergy risk

Explanation: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends exclusive breastfeeding for about 6 months, followed by continued breastfeeding as complementary foods are introduced. Most infants are developmentally ready for complementary foods around 6 months when they can sit with support, have good head control, and show interest in food. Early introduction (before 4 months) is associated with increased risk of obesity and digestive issues.

4A 15-year-old adolescent is at the clinic for an annual physical. Using the HEADSSS assessment framework, which area should be prioritized during the interview?

A.Detailed review of childhood immunizations only

B.Home, Education, Activities, Drugs, Sexuality, Suicide, Safety

C.Academic performance and grades exclusively

D.Family history of chronic diseases only

Explanation: The HEADSSS assessment is a psychosocial screening tool for adolescents covering: Home environment, Education/Employment, Activities, Drugs (substance use), Sexuality, Suicide/Depression, and Safety. This comprehensive approach identifies risk factors and strengths in adolescent patients. It should be conducted with the adolescent alone to encourage honest responses, while maintaining appropriate boundaries and mandatory reporting obligations.

5Parents of a 9-month-old ask when their baby will likely begin walking. Which response is most developmentally appropriate?

A.Most babies walk by 9 months

B.Most babies walk by 10-12 months

C.Most babies walk by 12-15 months

D.Most babies walk by 18-24 months

Explanation: Most infants begin walking independently between 12-15 months of age. Prior to this, they progress through crawling (7-10 months), pulling to stand (8-10 months), cruising along furniture (9-12 months), and standing independently (11-13 months). Walking before 12 months is considered early, and not walking by 18 months warrants further evaluation.

6A 3-year-old child is seen for a well visit. The parents note the child can use scissors to cut paper, dresses independently except for buttons, and speaks in 3-4 word sentences. Which finding requires further evaluation?

A.Using scissors to cut paper

B.Dressing independently except buttons

C.Speaking in 3-4 word sentences

D.All findings are developmentally appropriate

Explanation: All findings described are developmentally appropriate for a 3-year-old. By age 3, children typically use scissors to cut paper, dress themselves (may need help with buttons/back zippers), and speak in 3-4 word sentences with strangers understanding about 75% of their speech. These milestones indicate normal development across fine motor, adaptive, and language domains.

7During a 12-month well visit, the nurse practitioner assesses primitive reflexes. Which finding is expected at this age?

A.Persistence of the Moro reflex

B.Persistence of the rooting reflex

C.Presence of the parachute reflex

D.Presence of the palmar grasp reflex

Explanation: The parachute reflex (protective extension) typically emerges around 8-9 months and persists. It is elicited by lowering the infant toward the ground while holding them upright; the arms extend forward as if to "catch" themselves. The Moro, rooting, and palmar grasp reflexes are primitive reflexes that should disappear by 4-6 months. Persistence of primitive reflexes beyond expected ages may indicate neurological dysfunction.

8A 5-year-old child draws a person with a head, body, arms, and legs but no facial features. How many body parts has the child drawn, and is this developmentally appropriate?

A.4 parts; below expected for age 5

B.4 parts; developmentally appropriate

C.6 parts; advanced for age 5

D.8 parts; typical for age 5

Explanation: A 5-year-old typically draws a person with 6-8 parts (head, body, 2 arms, 2 legs, plus facial features or other details). Drawing only 4 parts (head, body, arms, legs without facial features) is slightly below the expected development for age 5. By age 4, children typically draw 2-4 parts; by age 5, 6-8 parts; and by age 6, more detailed drawings with clothing and other features.

9At which age does the posterior fontanelle typically close?

A.2-3 months

B.6-8 months

C.12-18 months

D.18-24 months

Explanation: The posterior fontanelle (located at the junction of the parietal and occipital bones) typically closes by 2-3 months of age. The anterior fontanelle (the larger diamond-shaped soft spot at the junction of the frontal and parietal bones) closes later, between 12-18 months. Delayed closure of fontanelles may be associated with hypothyroidism, rickets, or increased intracranial pressure.

10Parents of a 4-month-old infant are concerned that their baby is not yet reaching for toys. Which response by the nurse practitioner is most appropriate?

A.This is concerning and requires immediate referral

B.Reaching typically begins at 2-3 months, so evaluation is needed

C.Reaching typically begins at 4-7 months; this is likely normal

D.Reaching typically begins at 8-9 months

Explanation: Reaching for objects typically develops between 4-7 months of age. At 4 months, infants may begin swiping at objects, and by 5-6 months, they typically reach and grasp with a palmar grasp. Earlier concerns at 2-3 months would be premature, and waiting until 8-9 months would delay identifying potential motor delays. The nurse practitioner should assess other developmental milestones and provide anticipatory guidance.

About the CPNP-PC Exam

The CPNP-PC certification exam validates competency in pediatric primary care nursing for nurse practitioners providing preventive care, health maintenance, and management of common childhood conditions in outpatient, community, and primary care settings. The exam covers four domains: Health Maintenance and Promotion (30%), Assessment and Diagnosis (35%), Management (30%), and Professional Roles and Responsibilities (5%).

Questions

175 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

400 (scaled score)

Exam Fee

$395 (PNCB (Pediatric Nursing Certification Board))

CPNP-PC Exam Content Outline

30%

Health Maintenance and Promotion

Growth and development, anticipatory guidance, immunizations, illness and injury prevention, behavioral and mental health counseling, nutrition, and family-centered care

35%

Assessment and Diagnosis

Health history, physical examination, developmental surveillance, diagnostic testing, screening tools, clinical decision-making, and differential diagnosis

30%

Management

Therapeutic interventions, pharmacology, patient education, care coordination, referral, procedures, and follow-up care

Professional Roles and Responsibilities

Evidence-based practice, ethics, legal issues, leadership, advocacy, cultural humility, and quality improvement

How to Pass the CPNP-PC Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 400 (scaled score)
Exam length: 175 questions
Time limit: 3 hours
Exam fee: $395

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CPNP-PC Study Tips from Top Performers

1Focus on high-yield domains: Assessment and Diagnosis (35%) plus Health Maintenance (30%) account for 65% of the exam

2Master developmental milestones: know key milestones for each age group and be able to identify red flags

3Know immunization schedules: CDC recommendations for all ages are essential for the Health Maintenance domain

4Review common primary care conditions: asthma, ADHD, eczema, constipation, URI, otitis media, and well-child care

5Understand screening tools: M-CHAT-R/F, PHQ-9, Vanderbilt, HEADSSS, and other pediatric screening instruments

6Practice clinical decision-making: develop differential diagnoses and know when to refer to specialists

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the CPNP-PC pass rate?

The CPNP-PC first-time pass rate is approximately 80% (PNCB 2023 data). The exam is comprehensive and requires thorough preparation in pediatric primary care concepts including health maintenance, assessment, diagnosis, and management.

How many questions are on the CPNP-PC exam?

The CPNP-PC exam consists of 175 multiple-choice questions, with 150 scored and 25 unscored pretest questions. You have 3 hours to complete the exam. The questions cover Health Maintenance and Promotion (30%), Assessment and Diagnosis (35%), Management (30%), and Professional Roles and Responsibilities (5%).

What is the CPNP-PC passing score?

The CPNP-PC uses a scaled scoring system with a passing score of 400. Scores range from 200-800. You will receive preliminary pass/fail results immediately after the exam, with official score reports available within 2-3 weeks.

How long should I study for the CPNP-PC?

Most candidates study for 6-10 weeks before the CPNP-PC exam, completing 1,500-2,000 practice questions. Focus on high-yield areas like Assessment and Diagnosis (35%), Health Maintenance (30%), and Management (30%). Use practice questions to identify weak areas and review pediatric primary care guidelines.

What is the difference between CPNP-PC and CPNP-AC?

CPNP-PC (Primary Care) focuses on preventive care, well-child visits, health maintenance, and management of common childhood illnesses in outpatient settings. CPNP-AC (Acute Care) focuses on assessment, diagnosis, and management of acutely ill, critically ill, and chronically ill children in hospitals, emergency departments, and specialty clinics.

What clinical conditions are covered on the CPNP-PC exam?

The exam prioritizes: Developmental/Behavioral & Mental Health (highest volume), Dermatology, Allergy/Immunology, ENT, Gastroenterology, Infectious Diseases, Pulmonology, Musculoskeletal, Nutrition, Cardiology, Neurology, Endocrinology, Genitourinary, and other pediatric conditions. The exam also covers procedures like cerumen removal, wart removal, and foreign body removal.