200+ Free CPAN Practice Questions

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A patient is scheduled for a thyroidectomy and the surgeon has requested a superficial cervical plexus block for postoperative pain management. The perianesthesia nurse should monitor for which potential complication?

Hypertension and tachycardia

Horner's syndrome on the affected side

Bilateral vocal cord paralysis

Complete spinal anesthesia

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CPAN Exam

65-75%

Pass Rate

ABPANC 2024

185

Total Questions

140 scored

3 hrs

Exam Time

ABPANC

35%

Monitoring Domain

Largest section

$360

Exam Fee

ABPANC 2026

3 years

Certification Valid

Recertification cycle

The CPAN exam has a 65-75% pass rate for experienced nurses. It contains 185 questions (140 scored) over 3 hours with scaled scoring (200-800, 450 passing). Perianesthesia nursing offers excellent career prospects with strong demand in PACU and ambulatory surgery settings. CPAN certification demonstrates expertise in preoperative and postoperative care, enhancing career opportunities and earning potential.

Sample CPAN Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CPAN exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 200+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A patient is scheduled for a thyroidectomy and the surgeon has requested a superficial cervical plexus block for postoperative pain management. The perianesthesia nurse should monitor for which potential complication?

A.Hypertension and tachycardia

B.Horner's syndrome on the affected side

C.Bilateral vocal cord paralysis

D.Complete spinal anesthesia

Explanation: Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, and nasal congestion) is a known complication of cervical plexus blocks due to the spread of local anesthetic to the sympathetic chain. This is usually transient and resolves as the anesthetic wears off. Hypertension is unlikely with this block. Bilateral vocal cord paralysis would require bilateral blockade of the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Complete spinal anesthesia is not a risk with superficial cervical plexus blocks as they are peripheral nerve blocks.

2A patient received a supraclavicular brachial plexus block for upper extremity surgery. Upon arrival to the PACU, the patient reports chest pain that increases with deep inspiration. What is the nurse's priority action?

A.Administer an analgesic immediately

B.Assess effectiveness of the block

C.Perform a 12-lead EKG

D.Arrange immediate transfer to ICU

Explanation: Chest pain after supraclavicular brachial plexus block may indicate pneumothorax, a known complication of this block due to the proximity of the pleura. The nurse should first assess the block's effectiveness and then evaluate for signs of pneumothorax (diminished breath sounds, tachypnea, dyspnea). While pneumothorax is a concern, immediate transfer to ICU without assessment is premature. An EKG may be warranted if cardiac causes are suspected, but the timing and nature of the pain (pleuritic) suggest pulmonary etiology.

3The safest time to remove a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is when the patient is:

A.In stage II of anesthesia

B.Deeply anesthetized without airway reflexes

C.Awake and able to follow commands

D.During light anesthesia with suctioning

Explanation: The LMA should be removed when the patient is fully awake and able to follow commands, including opening the mouth. This timing minimizes the risk of laryngospasm, airway obstruction, and aspiration. Removing the LMA during stage II (excitement phase) or while the patient is deeply anesthetized increases the risk of airway complications. The "awake" technique is the current standard of care for LMA removal.

4Which anesthetic agent is most likely to cause emergence delirium in pediatric patients?

A.Propofol

B.Sevoflurane

C.Etomidate

D.Midazolam

Explanation: Sevoflurane, a volatile anesthetic commonly used in pediatric anesthesia, is associated with a higher incidence of emergence delirium or agitation compared to other agents. This phenomenon is characterized by restlessness, thrashing, crying, and disorientation upon emergence. The incidence is highest in preschool-aged children (2-5 years). Propofol is actually used to treat emergence delirium, while etomidate and midazolam have lower associations with this complication.

5A patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia (MH) is scheduled for surgery. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated?

A.Propofol

B.Etomidate

C.Ketamine

D.Sevoflurane

Explanation: All volatile anesthetics (including sevoflurane, isoflurane, desflurane, and halothane) and succinylcholine are contraindicated in patients with MH susceptibility. Propofol, etomidate, ketamine, and all non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers are considered safe for MH-susceptible patients. MH is a hypermetabolic crisis triggered by these agents, characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis.

6Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in which patient population?

A.Patients with history of postoperative nausea

B.Patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures

C.Patients with pneumothorax or air embolism risk

D.Pediatric patients under 5 years of age

Explanation: Nitrous oxide is contraindicated in patients with pneumothorax, air embolism, or those undergoing procedures where air may be trapped in closed spaces (middle ear surgery, intraocular surgery with gas bubble injection, laparotomy) because nitrous oxide diffuses into air-filled spaces faster than nitrogen can exit, causing expansion of the gas space. While nitrous oxide can contribute to PONV, it is not an absolute contraindication. It can be used in pediatric patients with appropriate precautions.

7Elderly patients have an increased risk of aspiration during general anesthesia primarily because of:

A.Increased gastric emptying time

B.Decreased esophageal motility

C.Increased lower esophageal sphincter tone

D.Decreased gastric acid production

Explanation: Elderly patients have decreased esophageal motility and reduced lower esophageal sphincter tone, which increases the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Additionally, gastric emptying is delayed in elderly patients, not increased. These age-related changes, combined with decreased protective airway reflexes, make elderly patients more vulnerable to aspiration during anesthesia.

8A 2-year-old child is admitted to Phase I PACU following cleft palate repair. Which positioning is most appropriate in the immediate postoperative phase?

A.High Fowler's position

B.Supine with head of bed flat

C.Prone position

D.Reverse Trendelenburg

Explanation: Following cleft palate repair, the infant or young child should be placed in a prone or side-lying position to facilitate drainage of secretions and prevent airway obstruction. This positioning helps prevent the tongue from falling back and maintains a patent airway. High Fowler's and supine positions are not recommended for this specific surgery due to airway obstruction risks.

9A pregnant patient is admitted to the PACU following a cholecystectomy. The patient's systolic BP drops from 160 to 90, circumoral cyanosis is noted, and a new heart murmur is auscultated. What position should the nurse immediately place the patient in?

A.Supine with legs elevated

B.Left lateral position

C.High Fowler's position

D.Trendelenburg position

Explanation: This presentation is consistent with supine hypotensive syndrome (aortocaval compression syndrome), where the gravid uterus compresses the inferior vena cava and aorta when the patient is supine. Immediate left lateral displacement of the uterus relieves this compression and restores venous return and cardiac output. The left lateral position is the treatment of choice.

10A patient with obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is at greatest risk for which postoperative complication?

A.Urinary retention

B.Airway obstruction and respiratory depression

C.Wound dehiscence

D.Venous thromboembolism

Explanation: Patients with OSA are at significantly increased risk for postoperative airway obstruction, respiratory depression, and hypoxemia due to their compromised upper airway anatomy, increased sensitivity to opioids, and blunted ventilatory response to hypoxia and hypercapnia. These patients require heightened monitoring in the PACU, careful titration of opioids, and consideration of CPAP therapy.

About the CPAN Exam

The CPAN certification validates competency in perianesthesia nursing care. The exam covers five domains: Anesthesia (24%), Physiology (18%), Perianesthesia Monitoring and Intervention (35%), Perianesthesia Care Considerations (14%), and Professional Nursing Practice and Guidelines (9%). The exam consists of 185 questions (140 scored) administered over 3 hours.

Questions

185 scored questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

450/800 (scaled)

Exam Fee

$360 (ABPANC (American Board of Perianesthesia Nursing Certification))

CPAN Exam Content Outline

24%

Anesthesia

General anesthesia, regional anesthesia, sedation techniques, anesthesia pharmacology, anesthetic agents, special populations, and complications management including malignant hyperthermia and difficult airways

18%

Physiology

Cardiovascular, respiratory, neurologic, endocrine systems, fluid and electrolyte balance, thermoregulation, pain mechanisms, stress response, and pathophysiology of body systems affecting perianesthesia care

35%

Perianesthesia Monitoring and Intervention

Vital signs and hemodynamic monitoring, oxygenation and ventilation management, fluid and electrolyte management, infection prevention, airway management, positioning, and emergency interventions

14%

Perianesthesia Care Considerations

Individualized patient care across the lifespan, patient and family education, cultural considerations, pain management, discharge planning, and care coordination for special populations

Professional Nursing Practice and Guidelines

Regulatory requirements, legal and ethical standards, evidence-based practice, quality improvement, patient safety initiatives, and professional standards of perianesthesia nursing practice

How to Pass the CPAN Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 450/800 (scaled)
Exam length: 185 questions
Time limit: 3 hours
Exam fee: $360

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CPAN Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master anesthesia pharmacology - know induction agents, inhalation agents, neuromuscular blockers, and reversal agents

2Understand hemodynamic monitoring - normal values, trends, and interventions for instability

3Study airway management - extubation criteria, airway obstruction, and difficult airway algorithms

4Know the Aldrete Score and discharge criteria from PACU

5Review malignant hyperthermia recognition and treatment protocol

6Understand fluid and electrolyte management in the immediate postoperative period

7Study pain assessment tools and multimodal analgesia approaches

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the CPAN exam pass rate?

The CPAN pass rate typically ranges from 65-75% depending on preparation, experience level, and clinical background. Nurses with substantial PACU experience generally have higher pass rates. The exam uses scaled scoring from 200-800, with 450 required to pass.

How many questions are on the CPAN exam?

The CPAN exam contains 185 multiple-choice questions total, with 140 scored questions and 45 unscored pretest questions. You have 3 hours to complete the exam. The exam is administered via computer-based testing at PSI testing centers.

What are the CPAN eligibility requirements?

To sit for the CPAN exam, you must have: (1) Current unrestricted RN license in the U.S. or Canada, (2) Minimum 1,200 hours of direct clinical experience in perianesthesia nursing within the past 2 years, or (3) Minimum 1,800 hours within the past 3 years. Experience must include both Phase I (PACU) and Phase II/III recovery.

What content areas are covered on the CPAN exam?

The CPAN exam covers five domains: Anesthesia (24%), Physiology (18%), Perianesthesia Monitoring and Intervention (35%), Perianesthesia Care Considerations (14%), and Professional Nursing Practice (9%). The largest section is Monitoring and Intervention, reflecting the critical nature of post-anesthesia assessment and care.

How long is CPAN certification valid?

CPAN certification is valid for 3 years. Recertification can be achieved through continuing education (contact hours) or by retaking the exam. ABPANC requires a minimum of 90 contact hours of perianesthesia-related continuing education over the 3-year certification cycle.

What is the difference between CPAN and CAPA?

CPAN (Certified Post Anesthesia Nurse) focuses on Phase I PACU care and immediate post-anesthesia recovery. CAPA (Certified Ambulatory Perianesthesia Nurse) focuses on preoperative and Phase II/III ambulatory care. Many nurses hold both certifications. The exams have similar formats but different content weightings reflecting their practice settings.

How should I prepare for the CPAN exam?

Study systematically across all five domains. Focus on the largest domain (Monitoring and Intervention at 35%). Use ABPANC study resources, CPAN review courses, and practice questions. Review anesthesia pharmacology, hemodynamic monitoring, airway management, and emergency protocols. Plan for 2-3 months of dedicated study time.