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Free Practice Questions for CSG

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Key Facts: CSG Exam

150

Total Items

CDR handbook: 125 scored + 25 pretest

3 hrs

Testing Time

CDR handbook; appointment also includes a 20-minute tutorial

44%

Assessment Share

Calculated from 55 of 125 scored items in the CDR outline

2,000 hrs

Specialty Experience

Within five years before application; permitted substitutions up to 800 hours

$350

Published Exam Fee

Current CDR CSG fee page and handbook

5 years

Certification Period

CDR recertification requirements

CDR’s CSG examination has 150 multiple-choice items (125 scored and 25 pretest) and a three-hour testing period. The published examination fee is $350. Eligibility requires current RD/RDN status held at least two years and 2,000 documented specialty practice hours within the preceding five years, with permitted substitutions. Testing is year-round at Pearson centers. The current content outline allocates 55 scored items to assessment, 47 to interventions, and 23 to foodservice/food safety.

Sample CSG Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the CSG exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1An 82-year-old community-dwelling woman scores 9 on the MNA-SF. According to the validated cutoffs, how should the RDN interpret this score?
A.Normal nutritional status, no further action needed
B.At risk of malnutrition; proceed to a full nutrition assessment
C.Malnourished; initiate enteral nutrition immediately
D.Score is invalid because the patient is community-dwelling
Explanation: MNA-SF score interpretation per Nestle Nutrition Institute: 12-14 normal, 8-11 at risk of malnutrition, 0-7 malnourished. A score of 9 places this patient in the 'at risk' category, triggering completion of the full MNA or another comprehensive nutrition assessment. The MNA-SF is a screening tool, not a diagnostic tool, so enteral nutrition would not be initiated based on this score alone.
2Which screening tool was specifically developed and validated for use across all care settings (community, hospital, and long-term care) and uses BMI, unplanned weight loss, and acute disease effect?
A.MNA-SF
B.MUST (Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool)
C.SARC-F
D.NRS-2002
Explanation: MUST was developed by BAPEN for use in any adult care setting and uses three independent criteria: BMI score, unplanned weight loss score, and acute disease effect score. Total score categorizes risk as low (0), medium (1), or high (>=2). MNA-SF is geriatric-specific, SARC-F screens for sarcopenia, and NRS-2002 was developed primarily for hospitalized patients.
3An RDN screens a 78-year-old man in a primary care clinic using SARC-F. He scores 5. What does this score indicate?
A.Normal muscle function
B.Suggestive of sarcopenia; further evaluation with strength and muscle mass measurement is warranted
C.Definitive diagnosis of severe sarcopenia
D.Frailty per Fried criteria
Explanation: SARC-F (Strength, Assistance walking, Rise from chair, Climb stairs, Falls) scores >=4 are predictive of sarcopenia and adverse outcomes. It is a screening tool, not diagnostic. Per EWGSOP2, a positive SARC-F should trigger assessment of muscle strength (e.g., grip strength or chair stand), then muscle quantity/quality, then physical performance to confirm and stage sarcopenia.
4Per the EWGSOP2 algorithm, which finding is required to confirm a diagnosis of sarcopenia in an older adult?
A.Low gait speed alone
B.Low handgrip strength alone
C.Low muscle strength PLUS low muscle quantity or quality
D.Body mass index below 22 kg/m^2
Explanation: EWGSOP2 (2019) updated criteria: low muscle strength (probable sarcopenia) is the primary parameter; sarcopenia is confirmed by additionally demonstrating low muscle quantity or quality (e.g., DXA, BIA, CT). Severe sarcopenia is diagnosed when low physical performance is also present. BMI is not part of the diagnostic criteria.
5Using the GLIM criteria, malnutrition diagnosis in an older adult requires the presence of at least one phenotypic criterion AND at least one etiologic criterion. Which of the following is a GLIM phenotypic criterion?
A.Reduced food intake or assimilation
B.Inflammation related to acute disease/injury
C.Reduced muscle mass
D.Inflammation related to chronic disease
Explanation: GLIM phenotypic criteria are: (1) non-volitional weight loss, (2) low BMI, and (3) reduced muscle mass. Etiologic criteria are: (1) reduced food intake or assimilation and (2) disease burden/inflammation (acute or chronic). GLIM has been validated in older adult populations across care settings.
6Which anthropometric measurement is MOST appropriate when an older adult cannot stand for height measurement due to severe kyphosis?
A.Wrist circumference
B.Knee height with Chumlea equation
C.Self-reported height from 30 years ago
D.Skip height; use weight only
Explanation: Knee height measurement combined with the Chumlea equation provides a validated estimate of stature in older adults who cannot stand or have spinal deformities such as kyphosis. Self-reported peak adult height overestimates current height (older adults lose ~1 cm per decade after 40), and weight alone cannot calculate BMI or estimate energy needs.
7An 80-year-old long-term-care resident has a BMI of 21 kg/m^2. According to ESPEN guidelines on nutrition in the elderly, how should this BMI be interpreted?
A.Normal, no concern
B.Low for an older adult; ESPEN suggests BMI <22 kg/m^2 indicates increased risk
C.Overweight by geriatric standards
D.Severely obese
Explanation: ESPEN guidelines on clinical nutrition and hydration in geriatrics suggest the BMI cutoff for low body weight in older adults is <22 kg/m^2 (vs. <18.5 in younger adults). Lower BMIs in older adults are associated with higher mortality. GLIM also uses age-adjusted BMI cutoffs (<22 if age >=70).
8Which nutrition-focused physical exam (NFPE) finding is consistent with severe muscle wasting in the temporalis region?
A.Rounded, well-defined temple
B.Hollowing/scooping above the cheekbone with prominent bony arch
C.Visible orbital fat pad
D.Smooth supraclavicular contour
Explanation: Severe temporal wasting is characterized by hollowing/depression in the temple area with the zygomatic arch becoming prominent. NFPE muscle exam sites include temple, clavicle, shoulder (deltoid), scapula, dorsal hand (interosseous), thigh (quadriceps), and calf (gastrocnemius). NFPE is one of six characteristics in the AND/ASPEN adult malnutrition diagnostic criteria.
9A nursing home resident has bilateral pitting edema to the knees. How does this affect nutritional assessment using AND/ASPEN malnutrition criteria?
A.Edema cannot be considered in malnutrition diagnosis
B.Generalized fluid accumulation is one of the six criteria and may mask weight loss
C.Edema confirms overnutrition
D.Edema only matters in pediatric assessment
Explanation: The AND/ASPEN consensus statement lists six characteristics for malnutrition diagnosis: insufficient energy intake, weight loss, loss of muscle mass, loss of subcutaneous fat, localized/generalized fluid accumulation that may mask weight loss, and diminished functional status (handgrip strength). Fluid accumulation can hide weight loss and should be documented during NFPE.
10An RDN observes angular cheilosis, glossitis, and a smooth red tongue in an 85-year-old vegetarian. Which deficiency is MOST likely?
A.Vitamin C
B.Vitamin B12
C.Vitamin K
D.Selenium
Explanation: Glossitis (smooth, beefy red tongue), angular cheilosis, and pallor are classic findings in vitamin B12 deficiency, which is common in older adults due to atrophic gastritis (~30% prevalence after age 60), reduced intrinsic factor, PPI use, metformin, and vegetarian/vegan diets. The Institute of Medicine recommends adults >50 obtain B12 from fortified foods or supplements due to absorption issues.

About the CSG Exam

Specialty certification for experienced Registered Dietitians providing nutrition care to older adults across clinical, residential, community, foodservice, and related settings. CSG tests nutrition assessment, individualized interventions, and foodservice/food safety, including care coordination and quality improvement.

Exam sponsor: CDR. The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Questions

150 questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

CDR-set equated passing standard; no fixed percentage published

Exam / Certification Fees

$350

Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

44%

Nutrition Assessment

55 of 125 scored items: screening/assessment, functional and cognitive status, diet/lifestyle, medical history, medications/supplements, diagnostic testing, cultural and psychosocial factors.

37.6%

Nutrition Interventions

47 of 125 scored items: therapeutic diets, fortification, textures, supplements, dining adaptations, nutrition support, education/counseling, caregiver support, care plans, palliative care, transitions, and programs.

18.4%

Foodservice and Food Safety

23 of 125 scored items: food handling, foodborne illness/outbreaks, training/leadership, menus, dining operations/resources, supply chain/emergencies, and quality improvement.

Preparing for the CSG Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: CDR-set equated passing standard; no fixed percentage published
  • Exam length: 150 questions
  • Time limit: 3 hours
  • Exam / certification fees: $350 Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

  • Work through all 100 available questions
  • Review every answer and explanation
  • Track weak areas and revisit them
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CSG: Suggested Study Strategy

1Use the current CDR outline: 12 assessment topics, 12 intervention topics, and 7 foodservice/safety topics.
2Distinguish screening classifications from malnutrition diagnosis and sarcopenia staging.
3Individualize protein, fluid, glucose, and supplement plans from current clinical guidance and patient goals.
4Test prescribed IDDSI textures correctly; bedside observations do not replace a swallowing assessment.
5Use the current MDS RAI manual: K0300 loss, K0310 gain, K0520C mechanically altered diet, and K0520D therapeutic diet.
6Practice cooking/cooling rules, employee-health decisions, outbreak response, and risk-based emergency planning.

Frequently Asked Questions

Who is eligible for CSG certification?

CDR requires current Registered Dietitian status held at least two years by the specialty examination date and 2,000 documented gerontological nutrition practice hours within five years before application. Permitted education/professional substitutions can cover up to 40% (800 hours). CDR must approve the eligibility application.

What is the CSG examination format?

The current CDR handbook specifies 150 multiple-choice items: 125 scored and 25 indistinguishable pretest items. Candidates have three hours for the examination. The appointment is three hours twenty minutes including a twenty-minute tutorial.

What does the CSG examination cover?

The current CDR outline allocates 55 scored items to Nutrition Assessment, 47 to Nutrition Interventions, and 23 to Foodservice and Food Safety. These represent 44%, 37.6%, and 18.4% of the 125 scored items; the last two percentages are often rounded to 38% and 18%.

How much does the CSG examination cost and where is it offered?

CDR’s current CSG fee page and specialist handbook publish a $350 examination fee, paid when scheduling. Examinations are offered year-round at Pearson test centers in the United States and selected international locations. Review the current CDR handbook and scheduling instructions before booking.

What is the CSG passing score?

CDR establishes a criterion-referenced passing standard using an Angoff study and equates forms for difficulty. The current handbook does not publish a fixed percentage-correct requirement. A practice-question percentage is not an official passing-score conversion.

Can I retake the CSG examination?

After an unsuccessful attempt, request reauthorization from CDR; it is not automatic. Candidates normally may retest after 60 days. If the one-year eligibility window has expired or expires during that waiting period, submit a new eligibility application. The handbook describes a limited employment-related one-time waiting-period waiver.

How should I plan CSG study and recertification?

Use CDR’s current outline and reference list to identify gaps and practice applied cases. A 60–100-hour plan is an OpenExamPrep planning estimate, not an official requirement. CSG certification lasts five years; recertification requires current RD status, the eligibility/practice-hour requirements, payment, and passing the specialty examination.