100+ Free ABR Neuroradiology Practice Questions

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Question 1

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On a non-contrast CT for acute stroke, a linear hyperdensity is seen in the left sylvian fissure within the first 6 hours. What does this sign most likely represent?

Hyperdense MCA sign indicating thrombus in the M1/M2 segment

Subarachnoid hemorrhage in the sylvian cistern

Dense calcification of the MCA wall

Normal variant vascular density

to track

2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABR Neuroradiology Exam

~200

Total MCQ Items

ABR Neuroradiology CAQ

1 day

Total Exam Time

1-day computer-based test at Pearson VUE

~18%

Cerebrovascular Weight

Largest domain on 2026 ABR Neuroradiology CAQ blueprint

$1,950

2026 CAQ Fee

ABR subspecialty certification

5+ yr

Required Training

DR/IR-DR primary + 1-year Neuroradiology fellowship

Pearson VUE

Test Delivery

Computer-based testing at authorized centers

The ABR Neuroradiology CAQ is a 1-day Pearson VUE computer-based exam containing ~200 single-best-answer MCQs. The 2026 blueprint emphasizes cerebrovascular/stroke (~18%), CNS neoplasms (~15%), spine (~12%), head and neck (~10%), pediatric neuroimaging (~10%), advanced imaging (~8%), neurovascular intervention (~6%), trauma (~5%), infections (~5%), demyelinating (~5%), physics/safety (~4%), and reporting/ethics (~2%). CAQ fee is ~$1,950; requires ABR DR or IR/DR primary certification plus a 1-year ACGME Neuroradiology fellowship.

Sample ABR Neuroradiology Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABR Neuroradiology exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1On a non-contrast CT for acute stroke, a linear hyperdensity is seen in the left sylvian fissure within the first 6 hours. What does this sign most likely represent?

A.Hyperdense MCA sign indicating thrombus in the M1/M2 segment

B.Subarachnoid hemorrhage in the sylvian cistern

C.Dense calcification of the MCA wall

D.Normal variant vascular density

Explanation: The hyperdense MCA sign represents acute thrombus within the MCA and is a highly specific early CT sign of ischemic stroke. It typically appears within minutes to hours of occlusion and predicts a larger infarct and poorer outcomes without recanalization.

2The loss of gray-white matter differentiation along the lateral margin of the insula on non-contrast CT is known as which sign?

A.Insular ribbon sign

B.Dense dot sign

C.Cord sign

D.Empty delta sign

Explanation: The insular ribbon sign refers to loss of the normal gray-white matter distinction along the insular cortex, an early marker of MCA territory ischemia. The insula is vulnerable because it is a watershed zone between MCA branches with limited collateral supply.

3On the ASPECTS score, what is the maximum (normal) score and what does each point deduction represent?

A.Maximum 8; each point deducted for each affected vessel

B.Maximum 10; each point deducted for an involved region of the MCA territory

C.Maximum 12; each point deducted for hemorrhage foci

D.Maximum 6; each point deducted for cortical ribbon loss

Explanation: ASPECTS is a 10-point score used on non-contrast CT in anterior circulation stroke. One point is subtracted for each of 10 defined MCA territory regions showing early ischemic change. Scores of 6 or less predict worse outcomes and larger core infarcts.

4On CT perfusion in acute ischemic stroke, which combination of parameters best defines the ischemic penumbra (salvageable tissue)?

A.Decreased CBF with markedly decreased CBV

B.Elevated CBF with reduced Tmax

C.Decreased CBF with preserved or increased CBV and prolonged Tmax

D.Normal CBF with elevated CBV

Explanation: The penumbra shows reduced cerebral blood flow (CBF) with preserved or elevated cerebral blood volume (CBV) due to autoregulatory vasodilation, plus prolonged Tmax. Core infarct shows markedly decreased CBV. Mismatch between penumbra and core selects patients for thrombectomy.

5A patient presents with stroke symptoms at an unknown time of onset. DWI shows restricted diffusion but FLAIR shows no corresponding signal change. What does this DWI-FLAIR mismatch suggest?

A.The infarct is likely older than 24 hours

B.There is a pseudo-restriction artifact

C.The infarct is likely within the last 4.5 hours, making IV tPA potentially appropriate

D.The lesion is hemorrhagic rather than ischemic

Explanation: DWI-positive, FLAIR-negative lesions suggest the infarct is less than approximately 4.5 hours old, as FLAIR changes typically develop after this window. This mismatch (WAKE-UP trial) identifies wake-up stroke patients who may benefit from IV thrombolysis despite unknown onset.

6The DAWN trial established endovascular thrombectomy eligibility for anterior circulation LVO in what time window?

A.0 to 6 hours from last known well

B.6 to 16 hours from last known well

C.24 to 48 hours from symptom onset

D.6 to 24 hours from last known well with clinical-core mismatch

Explanation: DAWN demonstrated benefit of thrombectomy for LVO patients 6-24 hours from last known well when there is a mismatch between clinical deficit (NIHSS) and infarct core volume. DEFUSE-3 extended thrombectomy to 6-16 hours using perfusion imaging mismatch criteria.

7Recent trials (RESCUE-Japan LIMIT and SELECT2) supported thrombectomy in patients with which imaging characteristic previously excluded from treatment?

A.Small infarct core with good collaterals

B.Posterior circulation stroke

C.Large ischemic core (ASPECTS 3-5 or core >50 mL)

D.Hemorrhagic transformation

Explanation: RESCUE-Japan LIMIT and SELECT2 demonstrated functional benefit from thrombectomy in patients with large ischemic cores (ASPECTS 3-5 or core volume up to 50-70 mL), expanding treatment eligibility. These patients were previously considered to have completed infarcts not amenable to intervention.

8A 65-year-old hypertensive man presents with a deep hemorrhage in the putamen. What is the most likely etiology?

A.Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

B.Arteriovenous malformation

C.Hypertensive hemorrhage

D.Hemorrhagic metastasis

Explanation: Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhages classically occur in deep locations including the basal ganglia (especially putamen), thalamus, pons, and cerebellum, due to rupture of lipohyalinotic Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms in small penetrating arteries. Lobar location suggests amyloid angiopathy.

9An 80-year-old patient presents with a lobar hemorrhage and multiple peripheral cortical microhemorrhages on SWI. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)

B.Hypertensive hemorrhage

C.Diffuse axonal injury

D.Hemorrhagic metastases

Explanation: Cerebral amyloid angiopathy presents with lobar hemorrhages (often cortical-subcortical) and multiple cortical/subcortical microbleeds on SWI in the elderly, sparing deep gray structures. This distribution distinguishes CAA from hypertensive hemorrhages, which involve deep gray and brainstem.

10Which imaging feature is most suggestive of aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage on non-contrast CT?

A.Blood centered in the basal cisterns (suprasellar, interpeduncular)

B.Blood limited to the cortical sulci only

C.Blood along the tentorium only

D.Blood confined to the convexity

Explanation: Aneurysmal SAH typically fills the basal cisterns (suprasellar, interpeduncular, ambient) because most aneurysms arise from the Circle of Willis. Convexity SAH in the elderly suggests CAA or RCVS. Perimesencephalic blood in a young patient often has a non-aneurysmal venous etiology.

About the ABR Neuroradiology Exam

The ABR Neuroradiology CAQ is the subspecialty certification examination administered by the American Board of Radiology for radiologists who have completed an ACGME-accredited Neuroradiology fellowship. The 1-day computer-based exam contains approximately 200 single-best-answer MCQs covering cerebrovascular disease and acute stroke imaging (ASPECTS, CT perfusion, DWI, LVO thrombectomy trials), CNS neoplasms (WHO 2021 molecular classification — IDH/1p19q/MGMT/H3 K27M), spine imaging, head and neck radiology, trauma, CNS infections, demyelinating disease (MS McDonald 2017, NMO, MOG), pediatric neuroimaging (myelination, MCD, leukodystrophies, neurocutaneous syndromes), and advanced techniques (fMRI, DTI tractography, MR spectroscopy, DSC/DCE/ASL perfusion, vessel wall MRI). Prerequisites include ABR DR or IR/DR primary certification plus a 1-year ACGME Neuroradiology fellowship.

Questions

200 scored questions

Time Limit

1-day computer-based exam

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABR

Exam Fee

~$1,950 CAQ examination fee (ABR 2026) (American Board of Radiology (ABR) / Pearson VUE)

ABR Neuroradiology Exam Content Outline

~18%

Cerebrovascular Disease & Stroke Imaging

Non-contrast CT early ischemic signs (hyperdense MCA, insular ribbon loss, basal ganglia obscuration, sulcal effacement), ASPECTS 10-point MCA score, CT perfusion (CBF core, CBV, Tmax — penumbra, mismatch for thrombectomy), MRI DWI/ADC acute restriction, FLAIR 4.5-h mismatch for tPA in wake-up stroke, SWI microbleeds. LVO CTA, thrombectomy trials (DAWN 6-24 h with clinical-core mismatch, DEFUSE-3 6-16 h perfusion mismatch, RESCUE-Japan LIMIT large cores). ICH (hypertensive — basal ganglia/thalamus/pons/cerebellum vs CAA lobar), SAH (CT sensitivity 100% <6 h, modified Fisher, xanthochromia LP), aneurysm CTA/DSA, AVM Spetzler-Martin, dAVF, cavernous malformation (popcorn T2 hypointense rim), carotid/vertebral dissection (intramural hematoma on fat-sat T1), FMD string of beads, moyamoya (Suzuki staging, ivy sign FLAIR), venous sinus thrombosis (empty delta on CECT, cord sign, MRV), PRES, RCVS.

~15%

CNS Neoplasms

Adult intra-axial per WHO 2021: GBM IDH-wildtype (necrotic ring-enhancing, butterfly across corpus callosum; MGMT methylation predicts TMZ response), IDH-mutant astrocytoma (better prognosis), oligodendroglioma (1p/19q codeletion, calcifications, lower relative CBV), H3 K27M diffuse midline glioma (poor prognosis), AT/RT SMARCB1 in infants. Meningioma (dural-based, CSF cleft, dural tail), CP angle (vestibular schwannoma ice cream cone IAC+CPA vs meningioma dural wide base vs epidermoid DWI restriction vs arachnoid follows CSF). Sellar/suprasellar (pituitary macro/micro, apoplexy, craniopharyngioma — adamantinomatous calcified in peds, papillary solid in adults; Rathke cleft), CNS lymphoma (HIV EBV+ periventricular, CD4 <50 with toxo DDx), metastases (gray-white junction; hemorrhagic — melanoma, renal, choriocarcinoma, thyroid), pineal, DNET (bubbly cortical); pediatric (medulloblastoma WNT/SHH/Gp3/Gp4, pilocytic astrocytoma cyst+mural nodule, ependymoma PFA/PFB ZFTA, DIPG).

~12%

Spine Imaging

Degenerative (disc pathology, spondylosis, modic changes), fractures (compression, Chance seat-belt flexion-distraction, burst with retropulsion, Anderson dens type I/II/III), cord compression with myelomalacia, cauda equina syndrome. Infection (discitis-osteomyelitis — T2 bright disc, endplate erosion, enhancement; epidural abscess), tumors — intramedullary (ependymoma central, astrocytoma eccentric, hemangioblastoma VHL flow voids), intradural extramedullary (meningioma calcified, nerve sheath schwannoma dumbbell), extradural (metastases, lymphoma, drop mets via CSF). SCIWORA in peds. Demyelinating cord (MS short-segment <2 vertebrae, NMO LETM ≥3, MOG, transverse myelitis). Anterior spinal artery infarct (owl's eyes bilateral anterior horns). Chiari I/II/III, syringomyelia, tethered cord, diastematomyelia.

~10%

Head & Neck Radiology

Sinonasal cancer (SCC nasopharynx, maxillary, sphenoid; juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma in adolescent boys — intensely enhancing pterygopalatine fossa mass; inverted papilloma — cerebriform pattern, SCC transformation). PNS mucocele and invasive fungal sinusitis. Parotid masses (pleomorphic adenoma — T2 bright, Warthin — multicentric/bilateral in smokers, mucoepidermoid, adenoid cystic — perineural spread). Laryngeal SCC (supraglottic/glottic/subglottic). Thyroid TI-RADS. Paragangliomas (glomus tympanicum, jugulare, caroticum — salt-and-pepper flow voids). Otosclerosis (otic capsule lucency), cholesteatoma (restricts DWI), vestibular schwannoma (ice cream cone IAC+CPA), jugular foramen (glomus jugulare permeative vs schwannoma IX/X/XI smooth vs meningioma).

~10%

Pediatric Neuroimaging

Normal myelination (T1 progressive central-to-peripheral, adult pattern ~8 mo; T2 reverses 18-24 mo; MRS Cho > NAA reverses). Malformations of cortical development — lissencephaly LIS1, polymicrogyria, hemimegalencephaly, focal cortical dysplasia, schizencephaly (open-lip vs closed-lip CSF-lined cleft). Chiari I (tonsils ≥5 mm below foramen magnum), Chiari II (Lückenschädel, tectal beaking, open neural tube), Dandy-Walker (vermian hypoplasia, enlarged posterior fossa). Holoprosencephaly (alobar/semilobar/lobar), corpus callosum dysgenesis (colpocephaly, probst bundles). Leukodystrophies (X-linked ALD occipital, MLD, Canavan with NAA peak, Alexander frontal, Krabbe). Neurocutaneous — NF1 UBOs pallidi/thalami + OPG, NF2 bilateral vestibular schwannomas, TS tubers/SEGA, Sturge-Weber (pial angiomatosis, tram-track calcifications). HIE (term — deep gray matter, parasagittal; preterm — PVL + IVH). Leigh (symmetric basal ganglia + brainstem), MELAS (stroke-like not respecting vascular territory + lactate on MRS). Congenital CMV (periventricular calcifications, polymicrogyria), toxoplasma (scattered calcifications, hydrocephalus).

~8%

Advanced Imaging Techniques

fMRI BOLD language/motor lateralization for pre-surgical planning. DTI tractography for white matter tracts and surgical corridor planning. MR spectroscopy interpretation — NAA neuronal marker (decreased in tumors, stroke, MS), Cho cellular turnover (elevated in tumors/demyelination), Cr reference, lactate (ischemia, mitochondrial — MELAS, abscess), lipid (necrosis), myoinositol (elevated in Alzheimer's and gliosis), glutamate/glutamine. MR perfusion — DSC (relative CBV — elevated in high-grade glioma, decreased in lymphoma/radiation necrosis), DCE (Ktrans permeability), ASL (non-contrast quantitative CBF). Vessel wall MRI for atherosclerosis (eccentric) vs vasculitis (concentric long-segment enhancement) vs dissection (intramural hematoma). Amyloid PET, tau PET, CEST/APT.

~6%

Neurovascular Intervention & Treatment Planning

Aneurysm treatment selection (endovascular coiling for narrow-necked; surgical clipping for wide-neck MCA; flow diverter pipeline for large/giant ICA aneurysms). Carotid artery stenting indications (high-surgical-risk patients with symptomatic ≥50% or asymptomatic ≥70% stenosis). Acute stroke thrombectomy imaging selection using ASPECTS ≥6 or perfusion mismatch. Pre-surgical AVM embolization for flow reduction. Venous sinus stenting for idiopathic intracranial hypertension. Spinal dAVF endovascular vs surgical treatment.

~5%

Trauma

Epidural hematoma (biconvex lentiform, does not cross cranial sutures, temporal arterial — middle meningeal artery), subdural hematoma (crescentic, crosses sutures, bridging vein venous source), cortical contusion coup/contrecoup (temporal poles, inferior frontal). Diffuse axonal injury — classic locations at gray-white junction (stage 1), corpus callosum/splenium (stage 2), dorsolateral brainstem (stage 3); best seen on SWI (microhemorrhages) and FLAIR/DWI. Penetrating injury, skull fractures (linear, depressed, basilar with Battle sign/raccoon eyes), pneumocephalus.

~5%

CNS Infections

Bacterial meningitis and complications (leptomeningeal enhancement, subdural empyema, cerebritis, brain abscess — smooth thin-walled ring enhancement with central DWI restriction and surrounding vasogenic edema). HSV encephalitis (bilateral asymmetric temporal and cingulate, FLAIR/T2 hyperintensity, restricted DWI, often hemorrhagic). TB basal meningitis and tuberculomas. CJD (cortical ribboning on DWI + pulvinar sign). PML (JCV — asymmetric non-enhancing white matter in AIDS or natalizumab). Toxoplasma (ring-enhancing with eccentric target sign, hemorrhagic, CD4 <100). Cryptococcus (dilated Virchow-Robin spaces, basal ganglia gelatinous pseudocysts). Neurocysticercosis (vesicular → colloidal → granular nodular → calcified stages).

~5%

Demyelinating Disease

Multiple sclerosis per McDonald 2017 (dissemination in space = lesions in ≥2 of 4 typical regions — periventricular, cortical/juxtacortical, infratentorial, spinal cord; dissemination in time = new T2/enhancing lesion or simultaneous enhancing + non-enhancing). Dawson fingers (periventricular finger-like, perpendicular to ventricles), T1 black holes (chronic axonal loss), enhancing = active. Tumefactive MS (open incomplete-ring enhancement facing cortex). NMO spectrum disorder (anti-AQP4, area postrema, LETM ≥3 vertebrae, bilateral optic neuritis). MOG-AD (peds more common, ADEM overlap). ADEM (post-vaccine/viral, white and deep gray matter, usually enhancing). Central pontine myelinolysis (rapid Na correction — trident/bat-wing central pons).

~4%

Physics, Contrast & Safety

Gadolinium-based contrast agents (NSF risk in eGFR <30 stage 4-5 CKD; group I linear agents — gadodiamide, gadopentetate — highest risk and avoided; group II/III macrocyclic — gadobutrol, gadoterate — preferred; dentate nucleus and globus pallidus T1 hyperintensity from deposition). MRI safety zones I-IV, implants (cardiac pacemaker MR-conditional protocols, deep brain stimulator, cochlear implants, aneurysm clips ferromagnetic vs non-ferromagnetic, retained intraocular foreign body). Contrast-induced AKI risk factors and mitigation. Iodinated contrast reactions (allergic-like vs physiologic), pre-medication with steroids + H1/H2 blockers.

~2%

Reporting, Ethics & Critical Findings

Critical findings communication per ACR Actionable Reporting Guidance and SIR standards with closed-loop read-back documentation. Structured reporting with standardized lexicons. Peer learning versus peer review. Diagnostic error disclosure to patients and referring providers. Incidental findings management following ACR white papers. Documentation of non-routine communication with timestamps.

How to Pass the ABR Neuroradiology Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled score set by ABR
Exam length: 200 questions
Time limit: 1-day computer-based exam
Exam fee: ~$1,950 CAQ examination fee (ABR 2026)

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABR Neuroradiology Study Tips from Top Performers

1ASPECTS (Alberta Stroke Program Early CT Score) is a 10-point quantitative CT score for anterior circulation (MCA territory) stroke. Start with 10 points and subtract 1 for each affected region: caudate (C), lentiform (L), insular ribbon (I), internal capsule (IC), and MCA cortical regions M1-M6. ASPECTS ≥6 is required for most thrombectomy trials; <6 suggests large core infarct with worse outcomes. RESCUE-Japan LIMIT (2022) showed thrombectomy benefit even in large cores (ASPECTS 3-5).

2Thrombectomy trial windows to memorize: DAWN (6-24 h) uses clinical-core mismatch (NIHSS and age-dependent DWI volume). DEFUSE-3 (6-16 h) uses perfusion-core mismatch (Tmax >6s penumbra volume ≥ 1.8× core, core <70 mL, mismatch volume ≥15 mL). HERMES meta-analysis supports thrombectomy 0-6 h. For tPA, the 4.5-hour window uses last-known-well; DWI/FLAIR mismatch (positive DWI, negative FLAIR) identifies <4.5-h stroke in wake-up cases per WAKE-UP trial.

3WHO 2021 CNS tumor classification hinges on molecular markers. Adult diffuse gliomas: IDH-mutant astrocytoma (better prognosis, graded 2-4), IDH-mutant 1p/19q-codeleted oligodendroglioma (best prognosis, calcifications, lower rCBV), IDH-wildtype glioblastoma (worst prognosis). MGMT promoter methylation predicts response to temozolomide in GBM. Pediatric midline tumors: H3 K27M-altered diffuse midline glioma (very poor prognosis, DIPG, thalamic, spinal). Medulloblastoma molecular: WNT (best prognosis), SHH, Group 3 (worst), Group 4.

4CP angle differential using DWI is a high-yield pattern. Vestibular schwannoma — ice cream cone centered in internal auditory canal with CPA extension, enhances, expands IAC porus acusticus. Meningioma — dural-based wide base on petrous bone, does not expand IAC, dural tail. Epidermoid — follows CSF on T1/T2 but RESTRICTS on DWI (cholesterol crystals), insinuates around vessels. Arachnoid cyst — follows CSF exactly including DWI (no restriction), smooth margins. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas = NF2 (chromosome 22).

5McDonald 2017 MS criteria: dissemination in space = lesions in ≥2 of 4 typical regions (periventricular, cortical/juxtacortical, infratentorial, spinal cord). Dissemination in time = new T2 or gadolinium-enhancing lesion on follow-up MRI OR simultaneous enhancing and non-enhancing lesions on single scan OR CSF oligoclonal bands (new in 2017). Dawson fingers are periventricular perpendicular to ventricles. T1 black holes = chronic axonal loss. Tumefactive MS = open-ring enhancement facing cortex. NMO vs MS: NMO has LETM ≥3 vertebral segments, area postrema involvement, bilateral optic neuritis, anti-AQP4 antibodies.

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABR Neuroradiology CAQ?

The ABR Neuroradiology Subspecialty Certificate of Added Qualification (CAQ) is the formal subspecialty certification examination administered by the American Board of Radiology for radiologists who have completed a 1-year ACGME-accredited Neuroradiology fellowship. It demonstrates expertise in neurological, head and neck, and spine imaging beyond the scope of general diagnostic radiology. The exam is a 1-day computer-based test at Pearson VUE and covers cerebrovascular disease, CNS neoplasms, spine, head and neck, trauma, infections, demyelinating disease, pediatric neuroimaging, and advanced MR techniques.

Who is eligible to take the ABR Neuroradiology CAQ?

Candidates must hold ABR Diagnostic Radiology or IR/DR primary certification and must have satisfactorily completed a 1-year ACGME-accredited Neuroradiology fellowship. Candidates must maintain a valid unrestricted medical license and their primary certification in good standing. Applications are submitted through the ABR within the designated eligibility window, and the fellowship program director must attest to satisfactory completion.

What is the format of the ABR Neuroradiology CAQ exam?

The exam is a 1-day computer-based examination delivered at Pearson VUE test centers, containing approximately 200 single-best-answer multiple-choice questions. Cases typically include multi-modality imaging — non-contrast CT, CT angiography, CT perfusion, MRI sequences (T1, T2, FLAIR, DWI/ADC, SWI, post-contrast), MR spectroscopy, perfusion, DTI, digital subtraction angiography, ultrasound of the neck, and nuclear medicine. Questions emphasize pattern recognition, differential diagnosis, treatment implications, and safety.

How much does the 2026 ABR Neuroradiology CAQ cost?

The 2026 ABR Neuroradiology CAQ examination fee is approximately $1,950. Cancellation and refund policies follow the ABR schedule with decreasing refunds as the exam date approaches. Candidates who fail may retake the exam in a subsequent administration within the eligibility window, subject to full re-registration and fee payment. Continuing Certification (OLA) participation has separate annual fees for maintaining the subspecialty designation.

When is the 2026 exam administered?

The ABR Neuroradiology CAQ is typically offered once per year in a defined testing window. Applications open earlier in the year with a submission deadline prior to the testing window. After application approval, candidates schedule specific Pearson VUE appointments. Exact 2026 dates should be confirmed on the ABR Neuroradiology subspecialty page.

How is the CAQ exam scored?

The ABR uses a criterion-referenced scaled scoring system with a passing standard set by subject-matter experts. Candidate pass/fail results depend on performance relative to the fixed cut-score rather than relative to other test-takers. Score reports include subdomain performance to guide future learning needs and Continuing Certification (OLA) module selection. Results are typically released several weeks after the testing window closes.

What are the highest-yield topics?

Highest-yield topics include: acute stroke imaging (hyperdense MCA, insular ribbon, ASPECTS, CT perfusion core/penumbra mismatch, DWI/FLAIR mismatch, thrombectomy trials DAWN/DEFUSE-3/RESCUE-Japan LIMIT); WHO 2021 CNS tumor molecular classification (IDH, 1p/19q, MGMT, H3 K27M); McDonald 2017 MS criteria (dissemination in space and time, Dawson fingers, T1 black holes); CP angle mass differential (vestibular schwannoma vs meningioma vs epidermoid vs arachnoid cyst using DWI and T2); pediatric posterior fossa tumors (medulloblastoma, pilocytic, ependymoma, brainstem glioma); normal myelination milestones; neurocutaneous syndromes (NF1, NF2, TS, Sturge-Weber); MR spectroscopy patterns; and gadolinium/MR safety.

How should I study for the ABR Neuroradiology CAQ?

Use a structured 12-month plan during your fellowship year. Map to the ABR Neuroradiology CAQ outline: lead with stroke and cerebrovascular imaging, then CNS tumors and spine, then head and neck, pediatric neuroimaging, infections, demyelinating disease, and advanced MR techniques. Core resources include Osborn's Brain, Osborn's Head and Neck Imaging, Barkovich Pediatric Neuroimaging, the ASNR Core Curriculum, RSNA Case of the Day, NeuroMarks, and the ASNR Annual Meeting refresher courses. Drill high-volume MCQs with timed sets, review imaging cases daily, and complete 2-3 full-length timed mock exams.