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100+ Free ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Practice Questions

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A 22-year-old patient sustains an open tibial shaft fracture with a 5-cm wound, moderate soft-tissue damage, and no neurovascular compromise. Using the Gustilo-Anderson classification, how is this fracture classified?

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Exam

~320

Multiple-Choice Questions

Delivered in seven sections

9 hours

Total Exam Duration

8 hrs testing + 40 min break + 20 min tutorial

$1,240

2026 Fee

Combined application + examination

32%

Lower Extremity Weight

Largest domain on the Part I blueprint

~900

Candidates Each Year

Annual July administration (Pearson VUE)

5 years

ACGME Residency Required

PGY-5 applies August-October of prior year

ABOS Part I is a ~320-question, 8-hour computer-based multiple-choice examination administered on a single day each July at Pearson VUE test centers. The 2026 blueprint allocates General Principles 15.5%, Adult Spine 9.5%, Upper Extremities 24%, Lower Extremities 32%, Pediatrics 12%, and Neoplasms ~7%. The fee is $1,240 combined application/examination. Candidates must meet KSB Program requirements (80 Surgical Skills + 6 End-of-Rotation Professional Behavior assessments by June 30, 2026). Historical first-time pass rate ~85-90%.

Sample ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 22-year-old patient sustains an open tibial shaft fracture with a 5-cm wound, moderate soft-tissue damage, and no neurovascular compromise. Using the Gustilo-Anderson classification, how is this fracture classified?
A.Type I
B.Type II
C.Type IIIA
D.Type IIIB
Explanation: Gustilo-Anderson Type II open fractures have wounds 1-10 cm with moderate soft-tissue damage but no significant periosteal stripping or extensive contamination. Type I <1 cm clean; IIIA >10 cm with adequate coverage; IIIB >10 cm requiring flap coverage; IIIC any open fracture with vascular injury requiring repair. IV antibiotic prophylaxis: cefazolin covers type I/II; add gentamicin (or similar) for type III; add penicillin for farm/soil contamination.
2A 35-year-old trauma patient has a leg injury with increasing pain and swelling. Compartment pressure is measured. Which finding is MOST diagnostic of acute compartment syndrome requiring emergent fasciotomy?
A.Absolute compartment pressure of 20 mmHg
B.Delta pressure (ΔP = diastolic BP − compartment pressure) less than 30 mmHg
C.Pain with active plantarflexion only
D.Palpable distal pulses
Explanation: Acute compartment syndrome is diagnosed when ΔP (diastolic BP minus compartment pressure) is <30 mmHg, OR when absolute compartment pressure is >30 mmHg in a symptomatic patient. The 5 P's (pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pulselessness) are unreliable late findings; pain out of proportion and pain with passive stretch are the most sensitive early clinical findings. Distal pulses are typically PRESERVED until very late — their presence does not exclude compartment syndrome.
3According to Wolff's Law, bone remodels in response to:
A.Hormonal changes only
B.The mechanical loads placed upon it
C.Age-related changes only
D.Genetic programming independent of load
Explanation: Wolff's Law states that bone remodels in response to mechanical loads — bone laid down in areas of higher stress, resorbed where stress is low. This is mediated by osteocyte mechanosensation, which regulates osteoblast and osteoclast activity. This principle underlies stress shielding around rigid implants and the need for weight-bearing to maintain bone density.
4Which cytokine is MOST important for osteoclast differentiation and activation?
A.RANK ligand (RANKL)
B.Osteoprotegerin (OPG)
C.BMP-2
D.TGF-β
Explanation: RANKL (Receptor Activator of Nuclear factor Kappa-B Ligand), expressed by osteoblasts and stromal cells, binds RANK on osteoclast precursors and drives osteoclast differentiation and activity. OPG is a decoy receptor that inhibits RANKL. The RANKL/RANK/OPG axis is the master regulator of bone resorption and is targeted by denosumab (anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody). BMP-2 and TGF-β primarily stimulate osteoblast activity and bone formation.
5A 68-year-old woman sustains a low-energy vertebral compression fracture. DEXA shows T-score of −3.2 at the femoral neck. Which medication class is first-line for osteoporosis treatment?
A.Bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronate)
B.Testosterone
C.Calcitonin only
D.Vitamin D monotherapy
Explanation: Oral bisphosphonates (alendronate, risedronate) are first-line for postmenopausal osteoporosis — they inhibit osteoclast activity and reduce vertebral and hip fracture risk. T-score ≤ −2.5 defines osteoporosis; severe osteoporosis is T-score ≤ −2.5 with fragility fracture. Teriparatide (PTH analog) and romosozumab are used for severe cases. Denosumab is an alternative for those intolerant of bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium are adjunctive, not primary treatment. Rare side effects of bisphosphonates include osteonecrosis of the jaw and atypical femur fractures.
6Which statement about Paget disease of bone is MOST accurate?
A.It is characterized by normal alkaline phosphatase and elevated calcium
B.It involves disordered bone remodeling with elevated alkaline phosphatase and risk of osteosarcoma transformation
C.It typically resolves without treatment in young adults
D.It never involves the pelvis
Explanation: Paget disease features accelerated, disordered bone remodeling — excessive osteoclast resorption followed by abnormal osteoblast bone formation, producing mosaic/woven bone. Alkaline phosphatase is characteristically elevated; calcium is usually normal. The pelvis, femur, skull, and spine are commonly involved. Complications include pathologic fracture, high-output cardiac failure, hearing loss, and rarely (<1%) malignant transformation to osteosarcoma (Pagetic sarcoma, poor prognosis). Bisphosphonates (zoledronic acid) are first-line treatment.
7A patient with a midshaft humerus fracture develops wrist drop post-injury. Which nerve is most likely affected?
A.Median nerve
B.Ulnar nerve
C.Radial nerve
D.Axillary nerve
Explanation: Radial nerve palsy occurs in 10-15% of humeral shaft fractures, particularly at the junction of middle and distal thirds where the nerve traverses the spiral groove (Holstein-Lewis fracture). Presentation: wrist drop, inability to extend MCP joints, and weak thumb extension; sensory loss over dorsal radial hand. Most (>90%) recover spontaneously with observation over 3-4 months. Persistent deficit beyond 4-6 months or palsy after manipulation warrants EMG/NCS and possible exploration.
8Which statement about sensitivity and specificity is correct?
A.Sensitivity = TN / (TN + FP); high sensitivity rules IN disease
B.Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN); high sensitivity rules OUT disease when test is negative (SnNout)
C.Specificity = TP / (TP + FN); high specificity rules OUT disease
D.PPV and NPV are independent of disease prevalence
Explanation: Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN) — proportion of diseased patients with a positive test. A highly sensitive test with a NEGATIVE result effectively rules out disease (SnNout). Specificity = TN / (TN + FP); a highly specific test with a POSITIVE result rules IN disease (SpPin). PPV and NPV DEPEND on disease prevalence (unlike sensitivity/specificity which are test properties). Lachman test for ACL has high sensitivity; pivot shift has high specificity.
9A 55-year-old patient is scheduled for elective total hip arthroplasty. Which is a modifiable risk factor that should be optimized preoperatively to reduce infection risk?
A.Chronologic age
B.Uncontrolled diabetes (HbA1c >7-8%)
C.Gender
D.Geographic location
Explanation: Modifiable preoperative infection risk factors include uncontrolled diabetes (HbA1c >7-8% is associated with higher PJI; many surgeons defer elective TJA until HbA1c <7.5-8%), active smoking (defer 4+ weeks preop), obesity (BMI >40 markedly increases PJI risk), malnutrition (albumin <3.5, prealbumin <15), MRSA colonization (screen and decolonize), and active infection elsewhere. Non-modifiable: age, gender, prior surgery.
10What is the recommended first-line prophylactic antibiotic for a clean orthopaedic procedure without beta-lactam allergy?
A.Vancomycin 1 g IV
B.Cefazolin 2 g IV (3 g if >120 kg) within 60 minutes of incision
C.Clindamycin 900 mg IV at incision
D.Ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV
Explanation: Cefazolin (a first-generation cephalosporin) is first-line for clean orthopaedic surgery prophylaxis: 2 g IV for patients ≤120 kg, 3 g IV for >120 kg; administered within 60 minutes of incision (within 120 min for vancomycin/fluoroquinolones). Re-dose every 3-4 hours for longer cases. Vancomycin is reserved for MRSA colonization or severe beta-lactam allergy. Clindamycin is alternative for penicillin-allergic patients. Postoperative prophylaxis duration should not exceed 24 hours.

About the ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Exam

The ABOS Part I Examination is the written certification exam for orthopaedic surgeons and the first of two parts leading to ABOS Board Certification. It evaluates a candidate's knowledge of general orthopaedics, basic science, and clinical problem-solving across six content domains — General Principles, Adult Spine, Upper Extremities, Lower Extremities, Pediatrics, and Neoplasms. The exam is taken after completion of an ACGME-accredited orthopaedic surgery residency (typically PGY-5) and is required before candidates can sit for ABOS Part II (Oral) examination.

Questions

320 scored questions

Time Limit

9 hours total (8 hours testing in seven sections + 40 min break + 20 min tutorial)

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced standard set annually by the ABOS Written Examination Committee via the Standard Setting Task Force

Exam Fee

$1,240 application and examination fee (ABOS 2026) (American Board of Orthopaedic Surgery (ABOS) — administered at Pearson VUE test centers)

ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Exam Content Outline

32%

Lower Extremities

Largest domain — pelvis/acetabulum (Tile, Young-Burgess), hip (OA, THA, AVN, FAI, femoral neck fractures — Garden classification), femur shaft, knee (TKA, ACL/PCL/MCL/LCL/PLC, meniscus, distal femur/tibial plateau fractures — Schatzker, patella), tibia/fibula (compartment syndrome ΔP<30 mmHg, tibial shaft fx), ankle/leg (Weber/Lauge-Hansen, syndesmosis, Achilles), foot (Lisfranc, hallux valgus, Charcot, plantar fasciitis, 5th metatarsal/Jones).

24%

Upper Extremities

Scapula/clavicle/AC/SC joints, shoulder (rotator cuff, instability, Neer proximal humerus fx classification, TSA/reverse TSA), humerus shaft (radial nerve palsy), elbow (distal humerus, UCL, olecranon, radial head — Mason, terrible triad), forearm (both-bone, Monteggia, Galeazzi), wrist (distal radius, scaphoid with snuffbox tenderness — 5-10% nonunion, Kienböck — Lichtman staging, SLAC), hand (metacarpal/phalanx fx, flexor/extensor tendon zones, Dupuytren, CTS — Phalen/Tinel).

15.5%

General Principles

Biostatistics/epidemiology (sensitivity/specificity, PPV/NPV), legal/ethical/systems-based practice, basic science (bone biology, Wolff's law, bone healing stages, cartilage types, tendon/ligament structure), anatomy and surgical approaches, multiple trauma (ATLS, damage control orthopaedics, Gustilo-Anderson open fractures), metabolic bone disease (osteoporosis, Paget, osteomalacia), medical aspects of sports medicine, perioperative management (VTE prophylaxis, infection, anesthesia/blocks).

12%

Pediatrics

Upper extremity (supracondylar humerus — Gartland classification, lateral condyle fx, Monteggia, brachial plexus birth palsy), lower extremity (DDH — Ortolani/Barlow, Perthes — Herring/Catterall, SCFE — South­wick angle, Blount, physeal fractures — Salter-Harris I-V), spine (AIS — Cobb, spondylolysis, Scheuermann), sports (OCD, Little League shoulder/elbow), general (child abuse, OI, CP, myelomeningocele, neurofibromatosis, limb deficiency).

9.5%

Adult Spine

Cervical (degenerative myelopathy — CSM, radiculopathy, cervical trauma, Subaxial Cervical Spine Injury Classification — SLIC, OPLL), thoracic (scoliosis, thoracic disc herniation, compression fractures), lumbar (disc herniation, central/lateral stenosis, spondylolisthesis — Meyerding, cauda equina — red flags), nonspecific (discitis/osteomyelitis, ankylosing spondylitis, metastatic spine disease).

7%

Neoplasms

Benign (osteoid osteoma — nidus, night pain relieved by NSAIDs; osteochondroma — most common benign; enchondroma — phalanges; giant cell tumor — epiphyseal; ABC, fibrous dysplasia), malignant primary (osteosarcoma — Codman/sunburst; Ewing — diaphyseal, onion-skin; chondrosarcoma, chordoma), soft-tissue sarcoma, metastatic disease (Mirels scoring ≥9 prophylactic fixation), staging (Enneking), biopsy planning (longitudinal, through future resection incision).

How to Pass the ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced standard set annually by the ABOS Written Examination Committee via the Standard Setting Task Force
  • Exam length: 320 questions
  • Time limit: 9 hours total (8 hours testing in seven sections + 40 min break + 20 min tutorial)
  • Exam fee: $1,240 application and examination fee (ABOS 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABOS Orthopaedic Surgery Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master compartment syndrome: delta pressure (ΔP = diastolic BP − compartment pressure) <30 mmHg or absolute compartment pressure >30 mmHg is the diagnostic threshold — fasciotomy is emergent; the 5 P's are unreliable and pain out of proportion and pain with passive stretch are the most sensitive early findings
2Know Salter-Harris cold — I (slip), II (above physis — most common, best prognosis), III (lower — intra-articular), IV (through — worst prognosis for growth arrest), V (crush, often missed, poor prognosis) — and Gartland for supracondylar humerus (I undisplaced, II hinged intact posterior cortex, III completely displaced)
3Memorize Gustilo-Anderson open fractures: I (<1 cm, clean), II (1-10 cm, moderate), IIIA (>10 cm, adequate coverage), IIIB (>10 cm, requires flap), IIIC (vascular injury requiring repair) — and know to give cefazolin for I/II, add gentamicin for III, and add penicillin for farm/soil contamination
4Learn scaphoid fracture red flags — snuffbox tenderness + scaphoid tubercle tenderness + axial thumb load pain → thumb spica splint even if initial X-rays are negative; repeat imaging in 10-14 days or MRI; proximal pole fractures have 30% nonunion risk due to retrograde blood supply from dorsal carpal branch of radial artery
5Know Mirels scoring (site, pain, lesion type, size) — score ≥9 requires prophylactic fixation before pathologic fracture occurs; Enneking benign (1-3 = latent/active/aggressive) and malignant (IA, IB, IIA, IIB, III) staging drives surgical margins; always biopsy through the future resection incision

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABOS Part I examination?

ABOS Part I is the written certification examination administered by the American Board of Orthopaedic Surgery. It is the first of two parts leading to ABOS Board Certification in orthopaedic surgery. The exam evaluates candidates' knowledge of general orthopaedics, basic science, and clinical problem-solving across six content domains. It is administered at Pearson VUE test centers on a single day each July to approximately 900 candidates. Part I must be passed before candidates can sit for the ABOS Part II (Oral) examination.

How many questions are on the ABOS Part I exam and how long is it?

ABOS Part I consists of approximately 320-330 multiple-choice questions delivered in seven sections. Total time at the testing center is 9 hours — 8 hours of testing time plus 40 minutes of break time and a 20-minute tutorial. The 2026 blueprint allocates General Principles 15.5%, Adult Spine 9.5%, Upper Extremities 24%, Lower Extremities 32%, Pediatrics 12%, and Neoplasms approximately 7%. The exam is computer-based and secure — all administered on the same day each July.

What is the passing score for ABOS Part I?

ABOS Part I uses a criterion-referenced passing standard set annually by the Written Examination Committee based on item-by-item analysis performed by a volunteer Standard Setting Task Force. Candidates are measured against a fixed content-expert standard rather than curved against peers. Each question has undergone five levels of review through the Question Writing Task Force, Field Test Task Force, and Written Examination Committee. Candidates receive pass/fail plus performance profiles by content area. Historical first-time pass rates for ACGME-trained candidates are approximately 85-90%.

Who is eligible to take the ABOS Part I exam?

Candidates must have completed an ACGME-accredited orthopaedic surgery residency (typically 5 years) or qualify through an approved alternate pathway. First-time takers apply during PGY-5 (application window August 1 - October 1 of the year before the exam). Candidates must also meet the KSB (Knowledge, Skills, Behaviors) Program requirements — for July 2026 first-time takers, that means 80 completed Surgical Skills and 6 completed End of Rotation Professional Behavior assessments by June 30, 2026. Requirements escalate in subsequent years (160 Surgical Skills by 2027, 240 by 2028).

How much does the ABOS Part I exam cost?

The 2026 ABOS Part I fee is $1,240, which covers both application and examination (paid together by credit card at application). A late fee of $750 is automatically applied for applications submitted after the initial deadline but before the late deadline. Fees are non-refundable and non-transferable. The fee is paid at the time of application, and examinations cannot be scheduled until payment is received. Candidates should also budget for OITE, board review courses, and other preparation materials — the ABOS registration fee does not cover those.

When and where is ABOS Part I administered?

ABOS Part I is administered at Pearson VUE Testing Centers throughout the United States on a single day each July (mid-July, e.g., July 15, 2027 for the 2027 cycle). Approximately 900 candidates take the exam each year. Candidates are notified of examination admission at least 60 days prior to the exam date. After application is accepted and the fee is paid, candidates schedule a location and specific seat at their chosen Pearson VUE center. Candidates cannot schedule until the examination fee has been paid.

What are the highest-yield topics on ABOS Part I?

Lower extremities (32%) is the largest domain — master ACL/PCL/MCL/LCL mechanisms and reconstruction options, meniscus, hip fractures (Garden, Pauwels), femoral neck AVN risk, tibial plateau (Schatzker), ankle (Weber/Lauge-Hansen, syndesmosis), Lisfranc, and compartment syndrome (ΔP <30 mmHg or absolute >30 mmHg). Upper extremities (24%) — rotator cuff, shoulder instability (Bankart, Hill-Sachs), proximal humerus (Neer), distal radius, scaphoid, Kienböck, and CTS. Pediatrics (12%) — Salter-Harris, supracondylar humerus (Gartland), DDH, SCFE, Perthes. Tumors (7%) — Enneking staging, Mirels, high-yield diagnoses (osteoid osteoma, GCT, osteosarcoma, Ewing).

How should I study for ABOS Part I?

Start early in residency using OITE performance to identify weak domains. Recommended resource mix: Miller's Review of Orthopaedics (core text), JAAOS review articles, Orthobullets for high-yield classifications and algorithms, AAOS board review courses, and several thousand practice questions. Take at least two full-length timed 320-question practice exams in the final months. Focus on classifications (Salter-Harris, Gustilo-Anderson, Neer, Schatzker, Weber, Garden, Mirels, Enneking), compartment pressures, pediatric red flags, and surgical indications. Review the ABOS Part I Blueprint to ensure proportional coverage of all six domains.