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100+ Free ABNM Nuclear Medicine Practice Questions

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A 58-year-old man with newly diagnosed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma undergoes a baseline FDG PET/CT. Which physiologic structure normally shows the HIGHEST FDG uptake and should not be mistaken for disease?

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: ABNM Nuclear Medicine Exam

250

Multiple-Choice Questions

ABNM blueprint — single-best-answer items

4 hours

Total Exam Time

Computer-based at Pearson VUE

$2,900

Total ABNM Cost (2026)

$500 processing + $2,400 registration

34%

Oncology Weight

Largest domain on ABNM blueprint (85 of 250 items)

83%

First-Time CE Pass Rate

ABNM 2023 Tracers Newsletter (most recent published)

Oct 5-17

2026 Exam Window

Annual October administration at Pearson VUE

The ABNM Certification Exam is a 4-hour, 250-question computer-based test administered once per year at Pearson VUE (October 5-17, 2026 window). The blueprint heavily weights Oncology (34%) and Cardiovascular (16%), with Therapy and Core physics/regulatory each at 10% — reflecting the dominance of PET/CT, theranostics (Lu-177 DOTATATE/PSMA-617, Ra-223), cardiac PYP amyloid imaging, and NRC 10 CFR 35 authorized-user competencies in modern practice. Total first-time cost is $2,900 ($500 non-refundable processing + $2,400 registration). Candidates have up to 3 attempts within 7 years of completing training.

Sample ABNM Nuclear Medicine Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your ABNM Nuclear Medicine exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1A 58-year-old man with newly diagnosed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma undergoes a baseline FDG PET/CT. Which physiologic structure normally shows the HIGHEST FDG uptake and should not be mistaken for disease?
A.Mediastinal blood pool
B.Cerebral cortex
C.Hepatic parenchyma
D.Bone marrow
Explanation: The cerebral cortex has the highest physiologic FDG uptake (SUVmax commonly 5-15) because neurons use glucose as their obligate fuel. The liver is the reference organ for the Deauville 5-point scale (score 3 = uptake > mediastinum but ≤ liver). Mediastinal blood pool is the low-activity reference (score 1-2). Normal bone marrow has low-to-moderate diffuse uptake unless stimulated by G-CSF or chemotherapy.
2On an interim FDG PET/CT after 2 cycles of R-CHOP for Hodgkin lymphoma, the largest residual lesion shows uptake moderately higher than the liver. Using the Deauville 5-point scale, what is this score?
A.Deauville 2
B.Deauville 3
C.Deauville 4
D.Deauville 5
Explanation: The Deauville 5-point scale anchors on two reference organs: mediastinal blood pool and liver. Score 1 = no uptake; 2 = ≤ mediastinum; 3 = > mediastinum but ≤ liver; 4 = moderately > liver; 5 = markedly > liver (>2-3x) or new lesions. Moderately > liver = Deauville 4. Per Lugano 2014, scores 4-5 are considered inadequate response on interim/end-of-treatment PET.
3A 65-year-old man with biochemical recurrence of prostate cancer (PSA 0.8 ng/mL) after prostatectomy undergoes Ga-68 PSMA-11 PET/CT. Which of the following represents the MOST common site of physiologic Ga-68 PSMA-11 uptake that can mimic disease?
A.Thyroid gland
B.Lacrimal and salivary glands
C.Cerebral cortex
D.Mediastinal blood pool
Explanation: PSMA is physiologically expressed in lacrimal glands, salivary glands (parotid/submandibular), kidneys, small bowel/duodenum, liver, spleen, and ganglia. Intense salivary/lacrimal uptake is a recognized pattern and is also the basis for xerostomia as a dose-limiting toxicity of Lu-177 PSMA-617 therapy. Celiac and cervical sympathetic ganglia commonly show PSMA uptake and can be mistaken for nodal disease.
4Which F-18 labeled PSMA radiopharmaceutical is FDA-approved for prostate cancer imaging and commonly used interchangeably with Ga-68 PSMA-11?
A.F-18 fluciclovine
B.F-18 piflufolastat (DCFPyL)
C.F-18 florbetapir
D.F-18 flortaucipir
Explanation: F-18 piflufolastat (Pylarify, DCFPyL) is an FDA-approved small-molecule PSMA ligand for initial staging and biochemical recurrence of prostate cancer. F-18 fluciclovine (Axumin) is a synthetic amino acid analog, NOT a PSMA ligand. F-18 florbetapir is an amyloid PET agent; F-18 flortaucipir is a tau PET agent. F-18 flotufolastat (Posluma) is another approved F-18 PSMA agent.
5A 55-year-old woman with a well-differentiated small bowel neuroendocrine tumor is referred for Ga-68 DOTATATE PET/CT. Which somatostatin receptor subtype is the primary target of DOTATATE?
A.SSTR-1
B.SSTR-2
C.SSTR-3
D.SSTR-5
Explanation: Ga-68 DOTATATE binds somatostatin receptor 2 (SSTR-2) with highest affinity. Well-differentiated NETs overexpress SSTR-2, which is why DOTATATE PET has supplanted In-111 pentetreotide (OctreoScan) for NET imaging. SSTR-2 positivity is also required for peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT) with Lu-177 DOTATATE. DOTATOC and DOTANOC are alternative chelator-peptide combinations with slightly different receptor profiles.
6The Krenning score is used to grade somatostatin receptor uptake on Ga-68 DOTATATE (or In-111 pentetreotide) imaging. A Krenning score of 4 corresponds to:
A.No uptake
B.Uptake less than normal liver
C.Uptake equal to normal liver
D.Uptake greater than normal liver
Explanation: The Krenning score: 0 = no uptake, 1 = faint uptake < liver, 2 = moderate uptake = liver, 3 = uptake > liver, 4 = uptake > spleen/kidneys. Krenning score ≥2 (uptake ≥ liver) is required for PRRT eligibility with Lu-177 DOTATATE. Higher Krenning score correlates with higher SSTR-2 density and generally better PRRT response.
7A 45-year-old woman undergoes sentinel lymph node mapping for melanoma. Which radiopharmaceutical is FDA-approved specifically for sentinel node detection and binds mannose receptors on macrophages?
A.Tc-99m sulfur colloid
B.Tc-99m tilmanocept (Lymphoseek)
C.Tc-99m MAA
D.Tc-99m MDP
Explanation: Tc-99m tilmanocept (Lymphoseek) is a small-molecule mannose-receptor-binding agent specifically FDA-approved for sentinel lymph node mapping in melanoma, breast cancer, and head/neck squamous cell carcinoma. Its small size (7 nm) allows rapid clearance from injection site with prolonged retention in sentinel nodes via CD206 mannose receptors on macrophages. Tc-99m sulfur colloid is also commonly used but is particle-size dependent and requires filtration.
8A 9-year-old boy with neuroblastoma is imaged with I-123 MIBG. Which of the following medications should be held prior to MIBG imaging because it blocks vesicular uptake?
A.Acetaminophen
B.Labetalol and tricyclic antidepressants
C.Proton pump inhibitors
D.Ibuprofen
Explanation: MIBG (meta-iodobenzylguanidine) is a norepinephrine analog taken up via the NET (norepinephrine transporter) and stored in neurosecretory granules. Tricyclic antidepressants, labetalol, reserpine, cocaine, sympathomimetics, and some calcium-channel blockers interfere with MIBG uptake or retention and should be held for the drug-specific interval (typically 1-6 half-lives). Thyroid blockade with SSKI/Lugol is also required to prevent free I-123 uptake by the thyroid.
9On an FDG PET/CT for staging lung cancer, a 2.1 cm right upper lobe solid nodule has SUVmax 8.5. What is the MOST appropriate interpretation?
A.Almost certainly benign — SUV < 2.5 excludes malignancy
B.Suspicious for malignancy; proceed with tissue sampling and staging
C.Diagnostic of small cell lung cancer
D.Consistent with granuloma; no further workup needed
Explanation: A solid pulmonary nodule ≥8 mm with SUVmax >2.5 is considered suspicious for malignancy and warrants tissue sampling plus complete staging. However, SUV alone is not pathognomonic — active granulomas (TB, sarcoid, histoplasmosis), abscess, and inflammatory nodes can be intensely FDG-avid (false positives are common in endemic granulomatous regions). Conversely, subsolid/ground-glass adenocarcinomas, carcinoid, and lesions <8 mm can be falsely negative.
10A patient's blood glucose measured immediately before FDG injection is 225 mg/dL. What is the MOST appropriate action?
A.Proceed — hyperglycemia improves FDG image quality
B.Reschedule or delay; hyperglycemia competes with FDG uptake and reduces tumor detection
C.Administer IV insulin, then inject FDG within 5 minutes
D.Double the FDG dose to compensate
Explanation: Hyperglycemia (typically >200 mg/dL) competes with FDG for GLUT transporters and hexokinase, reducing tumor uptake and image quality — a major cause of false negatives. Most guidelines recommend rescheduling or deferring the scan until glucose is controlled (commonly target <200 mg/dL). Administering short-acting insulin immediately before FDG diverts tracer to muscle/fat (insulin-sensitive tissues), worsening image quality — insulin should be given hours earlier or the study rescheduled.

About the ABNM Nuclear Medicine Exam

The ABNM Certification Examination is the primary ABMS board certification for nuclear medicine physicians. It is a secure computer-based test delivered annually by the American Board of Nuclear Medicine at Pearson VUE testing centers. The exam contains 250 multiple-choice, single-best-answer questions and must be completed within 4 hours. The ABNM blueprint distributes questions across 10 primary content categories: Core physics/instrumentation/regulatory (10%), Cardiovascular (16%), Endocrine (5%), Gastrointestinal (5%), Genitourinary (5%), Musculoskeletal/Infection-Inflammation (5%), Neurology (5%), Oncology (34%), Pulmonary (5%), and Therapy (10%). Secondary classifications include Pediatrics and Correlative Imaging. Candidates must complete an ACGME-accredited Nuclear Medicine residency (or approved alternate pathway) and pass within 7 years of training completion.

Questions

250 scored questions

Time Limit

4 hours

Passing Score

Criterion-referenced scaled passing standard set by ABNM

Exam Fee

$500 processing + $2,400 registration = $2,900 (ABNM 2026) (American Board of Nuclear Medicine (ABNM) — ABMS member board, delivered at Pearson VUE)

ABNM Nuclear Medicine Exam Content Outline

34%

Oncology

FDG PET/CT for lymphoma (Deauville/Lugano, interim PET), lung (solitary pulmonary nodule, staging, treatment response), head/neck, esophageal, colorectal, melanoma; PSMA PET (Ga-68 PSMA-11, F-18 piflufolastat/DCFPyL) for prostate cancer staging and BCR; Ga-68 DOTATATE PET for GEP-NETs (Krenning score); I-131 MIBG for pheochromocytoma/neuroblastoma; F-18 NaF bone PET; sentinel node lymphoscintigraphy (Tc-99m sulfur colloid, Tc-99m tilmanocept).

16%

Cardiovascular

Myocardial perfusion (Tc-99m sestamibi/tetrofosmin, Tl-201 redistribution, Rb-82, N-13 ammonia, F-18 flurpiridaz); pharmacologic stress (regadenoson, adenosine, dipyridamole, dobutamine); cardiac PYP for TTR amyloidosis (Perugini grade ≥2 + H/CL ≥1.5 at 1h); FDG PET for cardiac sarcoidosis (≥12-h high-fat/low-carb prep + heparin); viability (PET-FDG mismatch), MUGA LVEF, TID ratio, balanced ischemia pitfalls.

10%

Core — Physics, Instrumentation & Regulatory

Half-lives (F-18 109.8 min, Tc-99m 6.01 h, I-131 8.02 d, Ga-68 67.7 min, Lu-177 6.65 d, Tl-201 73 h, Rb-82 76 s); decay schemes, PET coincidence detection, attenuation/scatter correction, TOF/PSF reconstruction, SUV; dose calibrator QC; Tc-99m generator Mo-99 breakthrough ≤0.15 µCi/mCi; NRC 10 CFR 35 authorized user training, medical event 35.3045, release criteria 35.75.

10%

Therapy

I-131 for hyperthyroidism (Graves/toxic nodule) and thyroid cancer (ablation/adjuvant/metastatic); Lu-177 DOTATATE (Lutathera) for GEP-NETs — 4 cycles of 7.4 GBq (200 mCi) q8wk; Lu-177 PSMA-617 (Pluvicto) for mCRPC — 7.4 GBq q6wk up to 6 cycles; Ra-223 (Xofigo) 55 kBq/kg monthly x6 for mCRPC bone-only; Y-90 TARE SIRSpheres/TheraSphere; Sm-153 EDTMP and Sr-89 for bone pain.

5%

Endocrine

I-123/I-131 thyroid uptake and scan — normal RAIU 10-30% at 24 h; Graves (diffuse, high uptake), toxic adenoma (hot nodule, suppressed background), subacute thyroiditis (low uptake); parathyroid Tc-99m sestamibi dual-phase and SPECT/CT for adenoma localization; adrenal MIBG for pheochromocytoma; Ga-68 DOTATATE and F-18 DOPA for endocrine tumors.

5%

Gastrointestinal

Tc-99m mebrofenin (HIDA) for acute cholecystitis — non-visualization of GB >60 min (or delayed imaging with morphine augmentation); CCK-stimulated GBEF <38% suggests chronic acalculous cholecystitis; Tc-99m-labeled solid gastric emptying (4-hour protocol: >10% at 4h = delayed); Tc-99m pertechnetate Meckel scan; Tc-99m-labeled RBC for GI bleed (0.1-0.4 mL/min sensitivity).

5%

Genitourinary

Tc-99m MAG3 dynamic renography; furosemide washout T½ <10 min normal, 10-20 min equivocal, >20 min obstructed; Tc-99m DTPA GFR; Tc-99m DMSA cortical scarring/pyelonephritis; captopril renography for renovascular HTN (asymmetric uptake/delayed excretion post-ACE inhibitor); radionuclide cystography for vesicoureteral reflux (lower gonadal dose than VCUG).

5%

Musculoskeletal & Infection-Inflammation

Three-phase Tc-99m MDP bone scan (flow/blood pool/delayed): osteomyelitis = all 3 phases positive, cellulitis = only flow/pool; stress fractures, CRPS (diffuse periarticular uptake), prosthesis loosening vs infection; In-111 oxine or Tc-99m HMPAO labeled WBC; Ga-67 citrate for chronic infection/FUO; FDG PET for osteomyelitis, spondylodiscitis, and large-vessel vasculitis.

5%

Neurology

I-123 ioflupane (DaTscan) — asymmetric/reduced putaminal uptake in Parkinson disease, DLB, MSA, PSP; normal in essential tremor and drug-induced parkinsonism; amyloid PET (F-18 florbetapir/florbetaben/flutemetamol) per AUC; F-18 flortaucipir tau PET for AD staging; FDG patterns — AD (temporoparietal/posterior cingulate), FTD (frontal/anterior temporal), DLB (occipital with cingulate island sign); brain death perfusion.

5%

Pulmonary

Tc-99m MAA perfusion + Tc-99m DTPA aerosol or Xe-133 ventilation V/Q; PIOPED II/modified PIOPED interpretation (high/intermediate/low/very low/normal probability); pregnancy protocol (reduced MAA dose, perfusion-only first); quantitative pre-op V/Q for predicted postoperative FEV1; Tc-99m MAA shunt fraction; Y-90 MAA mapping prior to hepatic radioembolization.

How to Pass the ABNM Nuclear Medicine Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: Criterion-referenced scaled passing standard set by ABNM
  • Exam length: 250 questions
  • Time limit: 4 hours
  • Exam fee: $500 processing + $2,400 registration = $2,900 (ABNM 2026)

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

ABNM Nuclear Medicine Study Tips from Top Performers

1Memorize radiopharmaceutical half-lives cold — F-18 110 min, Tc-99m 6.01 h, I-131 8.02 d, Ga-68 68 min, Lu-177 6.65 d, Tl-201 73 h, Rb-82 76 s, Y-90 64 h, Ra-223 11.4 d — these appear in dosing, decay, and radiation-safety questions across nearly every category
2Master cardiac PYP (Tc-99m pyrophosphate) for TTR amyloidosis: Perugini grade ≥2 visual uptake AND H/CL ratio ≥1.5 at 1 hour (or ≥1.3 at 3 hours) has >97% specificity for ATTR when monoclonal gammopathy (SPEP/UPEP, serum free light chains) is excluded — allows diagnosis without biopsy
3Know Lu-177 PSMA-617 (Pluvicto) and Lu-177 DOTATATE (Lutathera) dosing: Pluvicto 7.4 GBq (200 mCi) IV q6 weeks x up to 6 cycles for mCRPC post-AR-targeted therapy and taxane; Lutathera 7.4 GBq q8 weeks x 4 cycles for GEP-NETs; both use amino-acid infusion for renal protection
4Master the Deauville 5-point scale for FDG PET lymphoma response — 1 (no uptake), 2 (≤ mediastinum), 3 (> mediastinum ≤ liver), 4 (moderately > liver), 5 (markedly > liver or new lesions). Scores 1-3 = negative, 4-5 = positive in most protocols (Lugano 2014)
5Know NRC 10 CFR 35.75 release criteria: outpatient release after unsealed-source therapy permitted if total effective dose equivalent to any individual from exposure is ≤5 mSv (500 mrem); for I-131, calculated release at ~33 mCi for adults, with written instructions for patients with children/pregnant contacts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the ABNM Certification Examination?

The ABNM Certification Examination is the primary ABMS board-certification exam for nuclear medicine physicians, administered by the American Board of Nuclear Medicine (ABNM). It is a secure, computer-based, single-best-answer multiple-choice examination delivered at Pearson VUE testing centers. Passing the exam, along with ACGME-accredited residency training and active medical licensure, confers ABMS board certification in Nuclear Medicine. The certificate is valid for 10 years, maintained through the ABNM Continuing Certification (CC) program — either the CC exam or CertLink longitudinal assessment.

How many questions are on the ABNM exam and how long is it?

The ABNM Certification Examination contains 250 multiple-choice questions, delivered at Pearson VUE. Candidates have 4 hours of testing time. All questions are A-type single-best-answer with 4-5 response options — no K-type multiple-select items. The blueprint distributes items across 10 primary categories: Oncology 34% (85 items), Cardiovascular 16% (40), Core 10% (25), Therapy 10% (25), and 5% each (12-13 items) for Endocrine, GI, GU, MSK/Infection-Inflammation, Neurology, and Pulmonary. Secondary classifications include Pediatrics and Correlative Imaging.

What is the passing score for the ABNM exam?

The ABNM uses a criterion-referenced scaled passing standard set through a modified Angoff standard-setting process — candidates are measured against a fixed content-expert standard, not curved against peers. Score reports provide pass/fail along with performance by content category. According to the ABNM 2023 Tracers Newsletter (most recent published), the first-time pass rate on the Certification Examination (CE) was 83%. Candidates who fail may take the exam up to 3 times within 7 years of completing residency training.

What are the 2026 ABNM exam dates and fees?

The 2026 ABNM Certification and Continuing Certification exams are administered October 5-17, 2026 at Pearson VUE testing centers. The application window runs April 1 - May 31 (EDT). The fee structure is $500 non-refundable processing fee (due with application by May 31) plus $2,400 registration fee (due by July 15), totaling $2,900. A $500 late fee applies for applications/payments received after the deadlines. Applications withdrawn after July 15 are not refunded; withdrawals before July 15 receive the $2,400 registration refund but not the $500 processing fee.

Who is eligible for the ABNM Certification Exam?

Candidates must hold an MD or DO degree and have completed either (1) an ACGME- or RCPSC-accredited Nuclear Medicine residency (typically 3 years), or (2) an approved alternate pathway — e.g., 16 months of Nuclear Medicine training during an ACGME-accredited Diagnostic Radiology residency plus a passed ABR Core Exam; 2 years of ACGME NM plus primary certification by another ABMS board (excluding ABR); or the ABNM alternate pathway (3 years of supervised NM work experience). All candidates must meet NRC 10 CFR 35.390 authorized-user requirements (including 700 hours experience and I-131 case logs) and hold an active, unrestricted medical license.

What are the highest-yield topics on the ABNM exam?

Oncology (34%) dominates — master FDG PET/CT for lymphoma (Deauville 5-point scale, Lugano), lung cancer, GI malignancy; PSMA PET (Ga-68 PSMA-11, F-18 piflufolastat) for prostate staging/BCR; Ga-68 DOTATATE for GEP-NETs (Krenning score); I-131 MIBG for pheochromocytoma/neuroblastoma; and sentinel node mapping. Cardiovascular (16%) demands fluency in MPI radiopharmaceuticals, cardiac PYP for TTR amyloidosis (Perugini grade + H/CL ratio ≥1.5), FDG PET for cardiac sarcoid (12-hour prep + heparin), and viability. Therapy (10%) emphasizes Lu-177 DOTATATE (4 cycles x 7.4 GBq), Lu-177 PSMA-617 Pluvicto (up to 6 cycles), Ra-223, and I-131 dosing. Core physics (10%) requires memorizing radiopharmaceutical half-lives and NRC 10 CFR 35 authorized-user/medical-event rules.

What radiopharmaceutical half-lives must I memorize?

Memorize these exact values: F-18 = 109.8 minutes (~110 min); Tc-99m = 6.01 hours; I-131 = 8.02 days; I-123 = 13.2 hours; Ga-68 = 67.7 minutes (~68 min); Ga-67 = 78.3 hours (3.26 days); Lu-177 = 6.65 days; Tl-201 = 73 hours (3.04 days); Rb-82 = 76 seconds; N-13 = 9.97 minutes; O-15 = 2.04 minutes; C-11 = 20.4 minutes; Y-90 = 64.1 hours (2.67 days); Ra-223 = 11.4 days; Sm-153 = 46.3 hours; Sr-89 = 50.5 days; In-111 = 67.3 hours. Know that Tc-99m generator Mo-99/Tc-99m breakthrough limit is ≤0.15 µCi Mo-99 per 1 mCi Tc-99m at time of administration (10 CFR 35.204).

How should I study for the ABNM exam?

Use a structured 6-9 month plan during the final year of residency. Start with radiopharmaceutical physics, half-lives, and NRC 10 CFR 35 authorized-user rules (Core 10%). Then dedicate the largest block to Oncology (34%) — FDG PET interpretation (Deauville, Lugano), PSMA PET, DOTATATE, MIBG, and sentinel node mapping. Next master Cardiovascular (16%) — MPI pharmacology, cardiac PYP for TTR amyloid, FDG sarcoid prep. Follow with Therapy (10%) — Lu-177 PSMA-617/DOTATATE dosing, Ra-223, I-131 — then the 5% categories. Complete the ABNM In-Training Exam (ITE), SNMMI learning resources, and at least one full-length 250-question practice exam before October. Integrate current guidelines: Lugano 2014/RECIL 2017, SNMMI PSMA PET appropriate use, ASNC cardiac PYP consensus (Perugini grade ≥2 + H/CL ≥1.5), and PIOPED II.