100+ Free CEDC Practice Questions

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Question 1

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Which factor does NOT influence MDM risk in the ED?

Number of vital signs documented

Drug therapy requiring intensive monitoring

Decision not to resuscitate

Decision for emergency major surgery

to track

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2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CEDC Exam

150

Total Items

AAPC

5h 40m

Exam Time

AAPC

$299

AAPC Member Fee

AAPC

2023

ED E/M Revision

MDM-only, no time

The AAPC CEDC consists of 150 MCQ items over 5h40m with 70% passing. Fee $299 AAPC member. Master 2023 ED E/M revisions (99281-99285 MDM-only, no time), critical care 99291-99292 (30+ min, with bundled vs separately billable procedures), EMTALA documentation, modifier 25 use.

Sample CEDC Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CEDC exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the 2023 AMA CPT revisions, which element is used to determine the level of an emergency department E/M service (99281-99285)?

A.History and exam combined

B.Total time spent on the date of encounter

C.Medical decision making (MDM) only

D.Number of body systems reviewed

Explanation: Effective January 1, 2023, ED E/M codes 99281-99285 are leveled based on Medical Decision Making (MDM) only. Time is not used because ED services are typically furnished to varying intensities and providers often care for several patients simultaneously, so time is not a reliable indicator.

2A patient presents to the ED with an acute uncomplicated illness (UTI) and is treated with prescription antibiotics. The provider documents one self-limited problem reviewed and prescription drug management. What is the most appropriate ED E/M code?

A.99281

B.99282

C.99283

D.99284

Explanation: 99283 is moderate MDM. The patient has an acute uncomplicated illness (low problem) but prescription drug management drives risk to moderate, qualifying the encounter as moderate MDM (99283).

3Which scenario best supports reporting 99285 (high-complexity ED E/M)?

A.An ankle sprain with conservative wrap and discharge

B.A patient with acute STEMI requiring emergent cath lab activation

C.A medication refill encounter with a stable chronic condition

D.A simple wound check follow-up

Explanation: 99285 requires high MDM, which includes a condition that poses an immediate threat to life or bodily function. STEMI clearly meets this criterion through high risk of morbidity/mortality and parenteral controlled-substance/emergency interventions.

4A 72-year-old presents with chest pain, undifferentiated. The provider orders troponins, EKG, and CXR; reviews prior records; and discusses the case with cardiology. What is the data element complexity?

A.Minimal

B.Limited

C.Moderate

D.Extensive

Explanation: Extensive data (Category 1: 3+ unique tests; plus discussion with external physician (Category 3) or independent historian) — multiple labs/imaging plus interprofessional discussion meets extensive complexity of data.

5Per CPT, which problem category counts as 'one acute illness with systemic symptoms' for ED E/M MDM?

A.Sprained wrist with localized swelling

B.Pyelonephritis with fever and vomiting

C.Common cold without fever

D.Stable hypertension follow-up

Explanation: Pyelonephritis with fever/vomiting is an acute illness with systemic symptoms — moderate problem complexity. Generalized symptoms (fever, body aches) tied to the illness elevate the problem above 'uncomplicated.'

6The ED provider personally interprets a chest X-ray (no separate radiology report yet) and documents the findings. Under MDM, this counts as:

A.Category 1 — review of test

B.Category 2 — independent interpretation of a test

C.Category 3 — discussion with external physician

D.Cannot be counted because it duplicates radiology

Explanation: An independent interpretation of a test by the reporting provider (not separately billed by them) qualifies as Category 2 in the data element. Documentation should reflect the interpretation, not just 'reviewed.'

7Which of the following is considered 'high risk' under MDM in an ED setting?

A.Over-the-counter analgesic recommended

B.Decision regarding hospitalization or escalation of care

C.Rest and follow-up with primary care

D.Recommendation for elective physical therapy

Explanation: Decision regarding hospitalization or escalation of care is explicitly listed by AMA as high risk of morbidity, supporting 99285.

8A patient with chronic back pain and no acute change is evaluated, referred back to primary care, and discharged with no new prescription. What is the appropriate ED E/M level?

A.99281

B.99282

C.99283

D.99284

Explanation: One stable chronic illness with low data and minimal risk is low MDM, supporting 99282. 99281 is reserved for problems where physician evaluation is not typically required (straightforward MDM).

9Which scenario qualifies as 'two or more stable chronic illnesses' under MDM?

A.Stable hypertension and stable type 2 diabetes

B.Acute UTI and acute pharyngitis

C.STEMI and atrial fibrillation

D.Sprained wrist and abrasion

Explanation: Two stable chronic illnesses (HTN + T2DM) qualify as moderate problem complexity under the AMA MDM table.

10An ED physician reviews the EMS run sheet, family-provided medication list, and outside hospital labs from a transfer. Which MDM data element does the family/EMS history support?

A.Independent interpretation

B.Independent historian

C.External physician discussion

D.Test ordered

Explanation: Information obtained from someone other than the patient (family, EMS, caregiver) when the patient cannot provide reliable history qualifies as an independent historian under Category 2 of data.

About the CEDC Exam

AAPC specialty credential for ED coders. Validates expertise in 2023-revised ED E/M (99281-99285 MDM-only, no time-based), ED procedures (laceration repair, fracture care, foreign body, cardiac procedures, critical care 99291-99292), critical care bundling rules, observation and trauma codes, EMTALA documentation, and ED-specific modifiers (25 for E/M with procedure).

Questions

150 scored questions

Time Limit

5 hours 40 minutes

Passing Score

70%

Exam Fee

$299 AAPC member (AAPC)

CEDC Exam Content Outline

25%

Emergency Medicine E/M (99281-99285)

2023 revision: MDM-only selection, no time-based; problems/data/risk for level

25%

ED Procedures (Laceration, Fracture, FB, Cardiac, Critical Care)

Laceration repair, fracture care closed/open, I&D, defibrillation, intubation

15%

ICD-10-CM ED Diagnoses

R codes (chest pain, abd pain, syncope, fever), S codes injury with 7th character

15%

Critical Care, Observation, Trauma

99291-99292 (30+ min); trauma activation G0390; observation 99221-99239 (2023 changes)

10%

Modifiers and ED-Specific Bundling

25 (E/M with procedure same day), 59 (distinct procedural service), CCI bundling

10%

Compliance and EMTALA

Medical screening exam, stabilization, transfer obligations, documentation requirements

How to Pass the CEDC Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: 70%
Exam length: 150 questions
Time limit: 5 hours 40 minutes
Exam fee: $299 AAPC member

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CEDC Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master 2023 ED E/M MDM grid: 99281 straightforward (no MD eval needed), 99282 low, 99283 moderate, 99284 moderate-high, 99285 high (acute illness with severe exacerbation OR threat to life/limb)

2Know critical care 99291/99292: 99291 first 30-74 min total time; 99292 each addt'l 30 min; cumulative time across day; cannot bill ED E/M and critical care same encounter

3Memorize critical-care SEPARATELY billable procedures: CPR 92950, intubation 31500, central line 36556, chest tube 32551, arterial line 36620, thoracentesis 32554-32557

4Understand modifier 25 use: required when significant separately identifiable E/M same day as procedure (e.g., ED visit + laceration repair)

Frequently Asked Questions

What changed in ED E/M codes in 2023?

The 2023 CPT revision changed ED E/M (99281-99285) to MDM-only selection. Time-based selection is NOT available for ED (unlike office/outpatient). History and exam are 'medically appropriate' but do NOT contribute to level. Level is determined entirely by Medical Decision Making complexity (problems addressed, data reviewed, risk).

What procedures are bundled into critical care 99291?

CMS bundles into critical care: vent management, pulse oximetry, blood gas interpretation, vascular access, gastric intubation, transcutaneous pacing setup, peripheral IV lines, cardiac output measurements. Procedures NOT bundled (separately billable with modifier 25): CPR (92950), endotracheal intubation (31500), central line (36556), chest tube (32551), arterial line (36620), thoracentesis (32554-32557).

What is EMTALA and how does it affect coding?

EMTALA (Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act, 1986) requires Medicare-participating hospitals to provide a Medical Screening Examination (MSE) to anyone presenting to the ED, stabilize emergency conditions, and either transfer appropriately or admit. Coding implications: documentation must support MSE was performed; transfer documentation must include patient consent, accepting facility info, and clinical condition. EMTALA violations carry CMP penalties.