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100+ Free CDEO Practice Questions

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For a same-day office procedure with global period of 0 days, billing the E/M with modifier 25 requires:

A
B
C
D
to track
2026 Statistics

Key Facts: CDEO Exam

4 hrs

Exam Time

AAPC

70%

Passing Score

AAPC

2 yrs

Recommended Experience

Outpatient CDI

The AAPC CDEO (Certified Documentation Expert Outpatient) is a 4-hour exam for outpatient CDI specialists. 2 years CDI experience recommended. 70% passing score. Heavy emphasis on E/M documentation, HCC risk adjustment, and provider query best practices.

Sample CDEO Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to test your CDEO exam readiness. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 100+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Under the 2021 AMA E/M guidelines for office/outpatient services (99202-99215), what are the three elements used to determine the level of medical decision making (MDM)?
A.History, exam, and medical decision making
B.Number/complexity of problems addressed, amount/complexity of data, and risk of complications
C.Chief complaint, HPI, and review of systems
D.Time, counseling, and coordination of care
Explanation: Effective January 1, 2021, the AMA revised office/outpatient E/M code selection. Levels are now based on either total time on the date of the encounter OR MDM. MDM has three elements: (1) Number and complexity of problems addressed, (2) Amount and/or complexity of data to be reviewed/analyzed, and (3) Risk of complications and/or morbidity or mortality of patient management. Two of three must meet/exceed the level.
2A provider documents a 28-minute office visit for an established patient including 10 minutes of pre-visit chart review and 5 minutes of post-visit documentation, all on the date of service. Which CPT code is supported using time?
A.99213 (20-29 minutes)
B.99214 (30-39 minutes)
C.99215 (40-54 minutes)
D.99212 (10-19 minutes)
Explanation: For 2021+ office/outpatient E/M, total time on the date of the encounter includes face-to-face AND non-face-to-face activities personally performed by the physician/QHP (chart review, documentation, ordering, care coordination). 28 + 10 + 5 = 43 minutes, which falls in the 99215 range (40-54 minutes).
3A provider addresses a patient with two stable chronic conditions (HTN, hyperlipidemia) plus one acute uncomplicated illness. How is this scored under the MDM 'problems addressed' column?
A.Minimal
B.Low
C.Moderate
D.High
Explanation: Under the 2021 MDM table, two or more stable chronic illnesses meet 'moderate' on the problems column. Even without the acute illness, two stable chronic conditions alone qualify as moderate. The acute uncomplicated illness alone would be low.
4Which of the following counts as a Category 1 data element under the 2021 MDM data column?
A.Independent interpretation of an EKG by the billing provider
B.Review of a prior external note from a different specialty
C.Discussion of management with an external physician
D.Performing the office EKG and billing 93000
Explanation: Category 1 includes: review of prior external notes from each unique source, review of each unique test result, ordering of each unique test, and assessment requiring independent historian. Reviewing a note from another specialty/practice counts as one Category 1 element.
5A provider prescribes a new medication that requires intensive monitoring for toxicity (e.g., warfarin with INR checks). Under the MDM risk column, this represents what level of risk?
A.Minimal risk
B.Low risk
C.Moderate risk
D.High risk
Explanation: Drug therapy requiring intensive monitoring for toxicity is explicitly listed as a high risk example in the 2021 MDM table. Examples include cytotoxic chemotherapy or warfarin requiring frequent lab monitoring to prevent serious adverse effects. Intensive monitoring is short-term (not annual) and looks for adverse effects, not therapeutic efficacy.
6What is the MINIMUM documentation required to support 'independent historian' under MDM data Category 1?
A.A note that family was present in the room
B.Documentation that history was obtained from a parent/caregiver because the patient could not provide reliable history
C.Reference to records sent by another provider
D.A signed release of information form
Explanation: An independent historian is required when the patient is unable to provide a complete or reliable history (e.g., dementia, developmental delay, altered mental status, infant). Documentation should explain WHY the historian was needed and identify the source. Mere presence of family does not qualify.
7Which of the following best describes the 2021 definition of a 'chronic illness with exacerbation, progression, or side effects of treatment'?
A.Any chronic illness present for more than 6 months
B.A chronic illness that is acutely worsening, poorly controlled, or progressing with intent to control progression
C.Any chronic illness requiring prescription medication
D.A chronic illness that has been stable for at least 1 year
Explanation: The AMA defines this as a chronic illness that is acutely worsening, poorly controlled, or progressing with an intent to control progression and requiring additional supportive care or attention to treatment for side effects—but that does not require consideration of hospital level of care. This counts as moderate complexity on problems addressed.
8When a patient is seen for a new problem to the examiner with no diagnosis established, what is the appropriate problem category if a workup is planned?
A.Self-limited or minor problem
B.Stable chronic illness
C.Undiagnosed new problem with uncertain prognosis
D.Acute illness with systemic symptoms
Explanation: An undiagnosed new problem with uncertain prognosis (e.g., new lump in breast pending biopsy) is a moderate-level problem. The presentation is concerning enough to warrant a workup whose outcome could be serious. Documentation should reflect uncertainty and the diagnostic plan.
9Under the 2021 guidelines, a 'social determinant of health' (SDOH) that significantly limits diagnosis or treatment is documented in the MDM as which element?
A.Problems addressed (one of the level-defining problems)
B.Risk of complications/morbidity from patient management (moderate risk)
C.Data reviewed
D.Time spent counseling the patient
Explanation: A social determinant of health (e.g., food insecurity, homelessness, lack of transportation) that significantly limits diagnosis or treatment is listed as an example of MODERATE risk under the risk column. It must be specifically documented (not assumed) and Z-codes (Z55-Z65) should be assigned.
10Which statement BEST describes the documentation requirement for history and exam under the 2021 office/outpatient E/M guidelines?
A.Detailed history and comprehensive exam are required for 99214
B.History and exam are no longer required for code selection but must be medically appropriate
C.Only a problem-focused history is required
D.History and exam must contain at least 4 HPI elements and 10 ROS systems
Explanation: For 99202-99215, history and exam no longer drive code selection. The provider performs and documents a 'medically appropriate' history and physical exam—the nature and extent are determined by the provider based on the clinical situation. Code level is selected on MDM or time only.

About the CDEO Exam

AAPC credential for outpatient Clinical Documentation Improvement (CDI) specialists. Validates expertise in 2021/2023 E/M documentation requirements, ICD-10-CM specificity for HCC risk adjustment, CPT/HCPCS procedure documentation, MIPS quality measures and HEDIS, compliance and audits, and AHIMA/ACDIS-compliant provider query practice.

Questions

100 scored questions

Time Limit

4 hours

Passing Score

70%

Exam Fee

Per AAPC (AAPC)

CDEO Exam Content Outline

25%

Outpatient E/M Documentation

2021/2023 E/M MDM-based selection, time-based selection, problem complexity

25%

ICD-10-CM Specificity and HCC Capture

Laterality, severity, encounter type, CMS-HCC risk adjustment, MEAT criteria

15%

CPT/HCPCS Procedure Documentation

Procedure documentation requirements, components, modifiers

10%

Quality Measures and MIPS/HEDIS

MIPS Quality Performance Category, HEDIS measures (CDC, BCS, COL, CCS)

15%

Compliance, Regulations and Audits

False Claims Act, Anti-Kickback, Stark, OIG audit work plan, RAC/MAC audits

10%

CDI Process and Provider Query

AHIMA/ACDIS query practice brief, non-leading queries, retrospective vs concurrent

How to Pass the CDEO Exam

What You Need to Know

  • Passing score: 70%
  • Exam length: 100 questions
  • Time limit: 4 hours
  • Exam fee: Per AAPC

Keys to Passing

  • Complete 500+ practice questions
  • Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
  • Focus on highest-weighted sections
  • Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CDEO Study Tips from Top Performers

1Master 2021/2023 E/M MDM grid: 3 elements (problems addressed, data, risk); 2 of 3 must meet at level for that grid
2Know HCC capture: chronic conditions actively managed each year with MEAT (Monitor/Evaluate/Assess/Treat); 'history of' vs active diagnosis matters
3Memorize OIG seven elements of compliance program: 1) standards/procedures, 2) compliance officer, 3) training, 4) communication, 5) monitoring, 6) discipline, 7) corrective action

Frequently Asked Questions

What's the difference between CDEO and CDEI?

CDEO is for OUTPATIENT clinical documentation improvement — physician offices, hospital outpatient, ASCs. CDEI is for INPATIENT CDI — hospital admissions with ICD-10-PCS coding and MS-DRG assignment. Both are AAPC credentials.

What is HCC risk adjustment?

Hierarchical Condition Categories (HCCs) drive Medicare Advantage risk-adjusted payments. CMS-HCC v24 (transitioning to v28) maps ICD-10-CM codes to HCCs based on cost prediction. Chronic conditions affecting current management must be captured annually with MEAT criteria documentation.

What are AHIMA/ACDIS query best practices?

Non-leading; multiple-choice format with all clinically supported options + 'other' + 'unable to determine'; documented clinical indicators in query rationale; OK to query for clarification or specificity but NOT to query for revenue. Concurrent (during stay) preferred over retrospective.