AIMVT VTS (Internal Medicine) Veterinary Technician Specialist

A dog is diagnosed with Stage B2 myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD) per ACVIM consensus. Which intervention is indicated?

• ANo medication; recheck in 12 months
• BPimobendan to delay onset of congestive heart failure
• CFurosemide and spironolactone
• DEmergency thoracocentesis

Which ACVIM stage describes a dog with a heart murmur from MMVD but no cardiac enlargement on imaging?

• AStage A
• BStage B1
• CStage B2
• DStage C

A cat presents with acute dyspnea, a gallop rhythm, and a murmur. Thoracic radiographs show pulmonary edema. Which breed is most predisposed to HCM?

• ASiamese
• BMaine Coon
• CPersian
• DAbyssinian

A large-breed dog with DCM has confirmed low whole-blood taurine. Which breed is classically associated with taurine-responsive DCM?

• ADoberman Pinscher
• BBoxer
• CCocker Spaniel
• DGreat Dane

Boxer dogs are predisposed to arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy (ARVC). Which diagnostic is most valuable for detection?

• AThoracic radiographs
• B24-hour Holter monitor
• CSerum troponin I alone
• DAbdominal ultrasound

A dog in acute CHF receives IV furosemide. Which electrolyte disturbance is the technician most likely to monitor for?

• AHyperkalemia
• BHypokalemia
• CHypernatremia
• DHypercalcemia

A dog presents in atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 220 bpm and signs of low output. Which drug class is used for rate control?

• ABeta-agonists
• BCalcium channel blockers (e.g., diltiazem) or digoxin
• CNitroprusside
• DMannitol

A Golden Retriever presents with muffled heart sounds, weak pulses, and jugular distension. Echocardiogram confirms pericardial effusion. What is the most common cause in this breed?

• AIdiopathic pericardial effusion
• BHemangiosarcoma of the right atrium
• CHeartworm disease
• DBacterial pericarditis

During pericardiocentesis, the technician notes the fluid does not clot in a plain red-top tube. What does this suggest?

• AActive hemorrhage into the pericardium
• BChronic pericardial effusion (defibrinated blood)
• CInadvertent venous puncture
• DLymphatic rupture

Which NT-proBNP finding in a cat supports occult cardiomyopathy versus primary respiratory disease?

• AMarkedly elevated NT-proBNP
• BUndetectable NT-proBNP
• CMildly decreased NT-proBNP
• DNT-proBNP is not useful in cats

Clopidogrel is commonly prescribed for cats with cardiomyopathy to reduce the risk of what complication?

• APulmonary hypertension
• BAortic thromboembolism (ATE)
• CEndocarditis
• DMyocarditis

Which ECG finding is most consistent with ventricular tachycardia?

• AWide, bizarre QRS complexes without associated P waves
• BRegular, narrow QRS with visible P waves at a rate of 140 bpm
• CSaw-tooth pattern of flutter waves
• DProlonged PR interval

A dog post-splenectomy develops ventricular arrhythmias. Which IV antiarrhythmic is first-line for hemodynamically significant VT in dogs?

• AAtropine
• BLidocaine
• CEpinephrine
• DCalcium gluconate

Right-sided CHF in dogs most commonly presents with which clinical sign?

• APulmonary edema
• BAscites, hepatomegaly, jugular distension
• CSeizures
• DPolyuria

Sildenafil is used in veterinary cardiology primarily to treat:

• ASystemic hypertension
• BPulmonary hypertension
• CHypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• DAtrial fibrillation

During thoracocentesis for pleural effusion, which landmark is typically used for needle placement?

• A4th intercostal space at the costochondral junction
• B7th-9th intercostal space, cranial to the rib
• C12th intercostal space at the costovertebral junction
• DXiphoid process

A Cavalier King Charles Spaniel is ACVIM Stage D with refractory CHF despite standard triple therapy. Which adjunct is frequently added?

• ATorsemide (more potent loop diuretic)
• BCorticosteroids
• CAntibiotics
• DInsulin

Which medication combination constitutes 'quadruple therapy' for canine Stage C CHF?

• AFurosemide, pimobendan, ACE inhibitor, spironolactone
• BFurosemide, insulin, digoxin, atenolol
• CPimobendan, prednisone, amoxicillin, doxycycline
• DLidocaine, mexiletine, sotalol, atenolol

A cat with HCM develops saddle thrombus (ATE) affecting the rear limbs. Which clinical finding supports this diagnosis?

• AWarm, bounding femoral pulses
• BCold, cyanotic rear limbs with absent femoral pulses
• CPolyuria and polydipsia
• DJaundice

Which drug is added to a CHF protocol specifically for its anti-fibrotic/aldosterone escape benefits?

• AFurosemide
• BSpironolactone
• CPimobendan
• DDigoxin

A dog in status epilepticus is unresponsive to two IV diazepam boluses. Which next-line IV agent is appropriate?

• APhenobarbital IV loading dose
• BOral gabapentin
• CTopiramate PO
• DMannitol

What is the typical maintenance serum phenobarbital trough level for canine epilepsy?

• A5-15 mcg/mL
• B25-35 mcg/mL
• C50-75 mcg/mL
• D100-150 mcg/mL

Potassium bromide (KBr) is added to phenobarbital therapy for refractory epilepsy. Which dietary change affects KBr levels?

• AHigh-fiber diet increases levels
• BHigh-chloride diet decreases levels
• CLow-protein diet increases levels
• DVegetarian diet decreases levels

Which antiepileptic drug is NOT recommended in cats due to risk of pulmonary fibrosis?

• ALevetiracetam
• BPhenobarbital
• CPotassium bromide
• DZonisamide

A Dachshund presents with acute paraplegia, intact deep pain, and absent superficial pain in the pelvic limbs. MRI is recommended to evaluate for:

• AHansen Type I disc extrusion
• BDegenerative myelopathy
• CDiscospondylitis
• DCerebellar hypoplasia

Loss of deep pain perception in an IVDD patient carries what prognostic significance?

• AExcellent prognosis with conservative care
• BGuarded prognosis; surgery within 24-48 hours maximizes recovery
• CNo prognostic significance
• DIndicates cervical rather than thoracolumbar disease

A young Pug presents with seizures, circling, and mentation changes. MRI shows multifocal T2 hyperintensities in the forebrain. CSF shows mononuclear pleocytosis. Most likely diagnosis?

• AMeningoencephalitis of unknown origin (GME/MUA/NME)
• BOtitis interna
• CDiskospondylitis
• DPolyneuropathy

How do you distinguish central from peripheral vestibular disease on neurologic exam?

• APeripheral disease always has vertical nystagmus
• BCentral disease often has postural reaction deficits and may have vertical or positional…
• CCentral disease has horizontal nystagmus only
• DYou cannot distinguish them clinically

A dog with regurgitation is diagnosed with acquired myasthenia gravis. Which diagnostic test is confirmatory?

• ASerum acetylcholine receptor antibody titer
• BANA titer
• CSerum cobalamin
• DRheumatoid factor

CSF collection is most commonly performed at which site in the dog?

• ACisterna magna (cerebellomedullary)
• BL7-S1 lumbosacral space
• CEither cisterna magna or lumbar (L5-L6 or L6-L7)
• DThoracic T10-T11

A hospitalized oncology patient requires doxorubicin administration. Per USP 800 standards, what is the minimum PPE requirement?

• AExam gloves and a surgical mask
• BChemo gown, double chemo-rated gloves, N95 or fit-tested respirator, eye protection
• CSterile surgical gown and gloves only
• DNo PPE required for IV chemotherapy

During doxorubicin infusion, the IV catheter extravasates. What is the IMMEDIATE priority?

• AStop the infusion but leave the catheter in place to attempt aspiration
• BImmediately pull the catheter and apply heat
• CFlush the catheter with saline and continue
• DWait and observe for 24 hours

Vincristine extravasation is managed differently from doxorubicin. Which is correct?

• ACold compresses, like doxorubicin
• BWarm compresses and hyaluronidase SC around site
• CNo intervention needed
• DImmediate surgical debridement

A dog receiving doxorubicin should be monitored for what dose-limiting toxicity?

• APulmonary fibrosis
• BCumulative dose-dependent cardiotoxicity
• CRenal tubular necrosis
• DHepatic lipidosis

Cyclophosphamide metabolism produces acrolein, which causes what side effect?

• ACardiotoxicity
• BSterile hemorrhagic cystitis
• CPeripheral neuropathy
• DOtotoxicity

The CHOP protocol (e.g., UW-25) for canine lymphoma includes which agents?

• ACyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunorubicin (doxorubicin), Oncovin (vincristine), Prednisone
• BCisplatin, Hydroxyurea, Omeprazole, Procarbazine
• CCarboplatin, Hydrocortisone, Oxaliplatin, Piroxicam
• DChlorambucil, Hydroxyzine, Octreotide, Pamidronate

A dog with a mast cell tumor undergoing chemotherapy should receive pretreatment with:

• AH1 and H2 blockers (diphenhydramine, famotidine) to prevent histamine-related effects
• BNSAIDs
• CAmoxicillin
• DThyroid supplement

Osteosarcoma (OSA) in dogs most commonly presents at which anatomic location?

• AMandible
• BAppendicular skeleton, especially distal radius and proximal humerus
• CRibs only
• DSkull base

Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the canine bladder is classically treated with which NSAID-based therapy plus chemotherapy?

• APiroxicam or another COX inhibitor, often with mitoxantrone or vinblastine
• BDexamethasone alone
• CAcetaminophen
• DSurgery only

Chemotherapy waste (vials, IV lines, PPE) must be disposed in which container per USP 800?

• ARegular trash
• BRed biohazard bag
• CYellow chemotherapy/hazardous drug waste container
• DSharps container only

A newly diagnosed diabetic dog is started on NPH (Humulin N) insulin. Typical starting dose is:

• A0.25 U/kg BID SC
• B2 U/kg BID IV
• C5 U/kg SID PO
• D10 U/kg TID SC

Which insulin is preferred for most diabetic cats due to its long duration of action?

• ARegular (crystalline zinc) insulin
• BPZI (protamine zinc) or glargine (Lantus)
• CNPH insulin
• DU-500 insulin

A DKA patient is in the ICU. Which IV insulin CRI target glucose decrease rate minimizes risk of cerebral edema?

• A<25 mg/dL/hr
• B50-75 mg/dL/hr
• C100-150 mg/dL/hr
• D>200 mg/dL/hr

Before starting insulin in a DKA patient, which electrolyte MUST be assessed and supplemented if needed?

• ASodium
• BPotassium
• CCalcium
• DChloride

A dog presents collapsed with bradycardia, hyperkalemia (7.2 mEq/L), hyponatremia (130 mEq/L), and Na:K ratio of 18:1. Most likely diagnosis?

• AHyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's)
• BHypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)
• CDiabetes mellitus
• DPrimary hyperaldosteronism

A dog is being monitored on trilostane for Cushing's disease. Which test is typically used to monitor therapy?

• ALow-dose dexamethasone suppression test
• BPost-trilostane (pre-pill or 3-hour post) cortisol and clinical signs
• CRandom cortisol
• DThyroid panel