AVECCT VTS Veterinary Technician Specialist Emergency and Critical Care

According to the 2012/2024 RECOVER guidelines, what is the recommended chest compression rate during CPR in dogs and cats?

• A100 to 120 compressions per minute
• B60 to 80 compressions per minute
• C140 to 160 compressions per minute
• D80 to 100 compressions per minute

A 20 kg dog is in asystole during CPR. What is the correct low-dose epinephrine dose per the RECOVER guidelines?

• A0.2 mg IV (0.01 mg/kg)
• B2 mg IV (0.1 mg/kg)
• C0.04 mg IV (0.002 mg/kg)
• D0.5 mg IV (0.025 mg/kg)

Which ECG rhythm is a shockable rhythm during veterinary CPR?

• AVentricular fibrillation
• BAsystole
• CPulseless electrical activity (PEA)
• DSinus bradycardia

A 15 kg dog with sustained ventricular tachycardia requires lidocaine. What is the appropriate initial IV bolus dose?

• A30 mg IV (2 mg/kg) slowly over 30-60 seconds
• B150 mg IV (10 mg/kg) rapid IV push
• C3 mg IV (0.2 mg/kg) slow IV
• D0.75 mg IV (0.05 mg/kg) slow IV

During CPR, what end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) value is associated with effective chest compressions and predicts ROSC in small animals?

• AGreater than 18 mm Hg
• BLess than 5 mm Hg
• CGreater than 45 mm Hg
• DBetween 5 and 10 mm Hg

A dog is in ventricular fibrillation during CPR. What is the correct first biphasic defibrillation dose per RECOVER?

• A2 J/kg
• B10 J/kg
• C4 J/kg immediately as first dose
• D0.5 J/kg

Which drug is indicated for bradycardia associated with high vagal tone during CPR?

• AAtropine 0.04 mg/kg IV
• BEpinephrine 0.1 mg/kg IV (high-dose)
• CLidocaine 2 mg/kg IV
• DAmiodarone 5 mg/kg IV

Which ECG abnormality is most consistent with severe hyperkalemia in a blocked cat?

• ATall tented T waves, wide QRS, absent P waves
• BDeep Q waves with ST elevation
• CInverted T waves with U waves
• DDelta waves with short PR interval

What is the recommended calcium gluconate dose for cardioprotection in a hyperkalemic patient?

• A0.5 to 1.5 mL/kg of 10% calcium gluconate IV slowly over 5-10 minutes with ECG monitoring
• B10 mL/kg of 10% calcium gluconate rapid IV push
• C0.1 mg/kg of 10% calcium gluconate IV
• D5 mL/kg of 23% calcium chloride rapid IV

A dog presents with pericardial effusion and pulsus paradoxus. What is the classic ECG finding of cardiac tamponade?

• AElectrical alternans with small-amplitude QRS complexes
• BST elevation in all leads
• CWide complex tachycardia with right bundle branch pattern
• DFirst-degree AV block with Wenckebach phenomenon

Which arrhythmia is most commonly associated with splenic hemangiosarcoma and hemoabdomen in dogs?

• AVentricular premature complexes or ventricular tachycardia
• BSupraventricular tachycardia
• CAtrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
• DSecond-degree AV block Mobitz type II

A dog in cardiogenic pulmonary edema from dilated cardiomyopathy is dyspneic. Which initial treatment combination is most appropriate?

• AFurosemide IV, oxygen supplementation, and sedation for stress reduction
• BLarge-volume crystalloid bolus and dobutamine CRI
• CMannitol, hypertonic saline, and corticosteroids
• DBeta-blocker and calcium channel blocker therapy

A 25 kg dog presents in hypovolemic shock. Per AAHA/AAFP guidelines, which initial crystalloid bolus strategy is currently preferred over the historical full shock dose?

• A10-20 mL/kg IV over 15 minutes, then reassess perfusion parameters
• B90 mL/kg IV rapid push as a single bolus
• C250 mL/kg IV over 1 hour
• D1 mL/kg slow infusion over 24 hours

A 30 kg dog with traumatic brain injury has a GCS declining. Which hypertonic crystalloid dose is appropriate?

• A3-4 mL/kg of 7% hypertonic saline IV over 10-15 minutes
• B20 mL/kg of 7% hypertonic saline rapid IV push
• C90 mL/kg of 0.45% saline over 1 hour
• D0.1 mL/kg of 23% saline IV push undiluted

A patient receiving a potassium-supplemented fluid bag should not exceed what maximum rate of potassium administration?

• A0.5 mEq/kg/hour
• B5 mEq/kg/hour
• C10 mEq/kg/minute
• DNo defined upper limit exists

A cat has a measured serum sodium of 115 mEq/L after treatment for diabetes insipidus. How rapidly can sodium be safely corrected?

• ANo faster than 0.5 mEq/L per hour (or about 10-12 mEq/L per 24 hours)
• BAt least 2 mEq/L per hour to rapidly normalize
• C10 mEq/L per hour
• DSodium can be corrected as fast as the clinician wishes

A dog has a venous blood gas showing pH 7.18, PCO2 32 mm Hg, HCO3- 12 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disturbance?

• AMetabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
• BRespiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
• CMetabolic alkalosis
• DRespiratory alkalosis

Which lactate value is most concerning for hypoperfusion in a dog presenting in shock?

• AGreater than 5 mmol/L
• BLess than 1.0 mmol/L
• C2.0 to 2.5 mmol/L
• DNegative lactate values

A dog receiving massive crystalloid resuscitation develops a hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. Which fluid is most likely to be the cause?

• A0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline)
• BLactated Ringer's solution
• CPlasma-Lyte A
• DNormosol-R

How should fresh frozen plasma (FFP) be administered to a dog with a coagulopathy?

• A10-15 mL/kg IV through a blood filter over 1-4 hours
• BRapid IV push undiluted
• CDiluted 1:1 with dextrose and run over 24 hours
• DSubcutaneously 5 mL/kg

A dog has acute urticaria, facial edema, and mild hypotension 20 minutes into a packed red blood cell (pRBC) transfusion. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

• AStop the transfusion and administer diphenhydramine; if vitals stabilize, may restart at…
• BContinue the transfusion and add epinephrine to the bag
• CIncrease the rate to overcome the hypotension
• DSwitch to whole blood from the same donor

Which blood type is considered the universal donor in cats?

• AThere is no universal donor in cats — all cats must be blood-typed before transfusion
• BType A cats are universal donors
• CType B cats are universal donors
• DType AB cats are universal donors

A septic dog meets SIRS criteria including tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and leukocytosis. Which hemodynamic pattern characterizes early (hyperdynamic) septic shock?

• AWarm extremities, bounding pulses, brick-red mucous membranes, rapid CRT
• BCold extremities, weak thready pulses, pale mucous membranes, prolonged CRT
• CPeripheral cyanosis with bradycardia
• DNormal perfusion parameters with extreme hypertension

Which SIRS criterion is specific to dogs (not cats)?

• ALeukocytosis with >16,000/uL or leukopenia <6,000/uL
• BBradycardia less than 140 bpm is diagnostic
• CHypothermia is excluded as a criterion
• DPositive blood culture is required

A dog with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA) has a PCV of 12%. Which laboratory finding supports the diagnosis?

• ASpherocytosis and autoagglutination on a saline dilution slide
• BTarget cells and acanthocytes only
• CPancytopenia with bone marrow aplasia
• DNormal reticulocyte count with normocytic normochromic anemia

A dog with lymphoma develops tumor lysis syndrome after chemotherapy. Which electrolyte pattern is expected?

• AHyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, and hyperuricemia
• BHypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypercalcemia
• CHypernatremia and hypochloremia only
• DNormal electrolytes with elevated ALT only

Which dog is considered a universal blood donor in emergency medicine?

• AA DEA 1 negative dog (and ideally negative for other minor antigens) that has never recei…
• BA DEA 1 positive dog
• CAny dog over 50 kg regardless of DEA type
• DThe recipient's own dog from the same litter

A dog presents with severe dyspnea, orthopnea, and 'caudal abdominal breathing.' Thoracic point-of-care ultrasound (TFAST) shows bilateral pleural effusion. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

• ATherapeutic thoracocentesis
• BStart furosemide 4 mg/kg IV and wait to reassess
• CRapid fluid bolus of 30 mL/kg crystalloid
• DIntubation and mechanical ventilation first

A dog on mechanical ventilation has a PaO2 of 55 mm Hg on 100% FiO2 and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on thoracic radiographs. What condition is most likely?

• AAcute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) / acute lung injury (ALI)
• BSimple pneumothorax
• CUpper airway obstruction
• DHypovolemic shock

A pulse oximetry reading (SpO2) of 90% approximately corresponds to which PaO2?

• AApproximately 60 mm Hg
• BApproximately 100 mm Hg
• CApproximately 40 mm Hg
• DApproximately 200 mm Hg

A cat in severe respiratory distress with stertor and cyanosis has a history of a recent rat encounter. Which upper airway emergency is most likely?

• ALaryngeal obstruction or facial swelling from envenomation
• BPrimary pulmonary fibrosis
• CHeartworm-associated respiratory disease
• DChronic bronchitis

A brachycephalic English Bulldog presents with BOAS (brachycephalic obstructive airway syndrome) crisis, hyperthermia (T 106.5 F), and severe stridor. Which intervention is highest priority?

• ASedation (e.g., butorphanol), active cooling, oxygen, and possible intubation
• BWarm IV fluid bolus to offset hyperthermia
• COral cough suppressants
• DDelayed soft palate resection in 2 weeks without acute intervention

A dog presents with sudden onset of open-mouth breathing, tachycardia, and muffled heart sounds after falling from a height. Which condition must be ruled out immediately?

• ATension pneumothorax
• BHypertrophic cardiomyopathy
• CAllergic dermatitis
• DChronic renal failure

Which method of oxygen supplementation delivers the highest inspired oxygen concentration to a non-intubated dog?

• AOxygen cage or high-flow nasal cannula (can reach FiO2 60-80%)
• BFlow-by from a mask at 2 L/min
• CRoom air with sedation
• DTracheal wash catheter

A dog on mechanical ventilation has a high peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) alarm. Which is NOT a typical cause?

• AOversedation causing hypoventilation
• BEndotracheal tube obstruction or kinking
• CPneumothorax developing during ventilation
• DDecreased pulmonary compliance (e.g., worsening ARDS)

A dog with aspiration pneumonia has a capnography waveform showing a prolonged, upsloping expiratory phase (phase III). What does this suggest?

• ABronchospasm or small airway obstruction
• BDisconnection of the breathing circuit
• CComplete airway obstruction
• DNormal healthy patient

What is the most common and rapidly fatal complication of gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) that must be addressed immediately on presentation?

• AObstructive (distributive-hypovolemic) shock from caudal vena cava compression
• BHypercalcemia
• CSevere respiratory alkalosis
• DHypothyroidism