FAA PFB Knowledge Test — Private Pilot Airplane Foreign Pilot via BASA (61.71)

Under 14 CFR § 61.71, what private pilot certificate privileges are granted to an applicant converting a foreign pilot licence under a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA)?

• AStandard FAA Private Pilot privileges with category and class ratings corresponding to th…
• BSpecial purpose private pilot privileges valid only while operating foreign-registered ai…
• CStudent pilot privileges requiring flight instructor supervision for all solo cross-count…
• DCommercial pilot privileges provided the pilot passes a flight review in a multi-engine a…

Under 14 CFR § 61.23, what is the duration of a Third-Class Medical Certificate for a pilot who has not reached their 40th birthday on the date of the examination?

• A24 calendar months
• B60 calendar months
• C12 calendar months
• D36 calendar months

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, how often must a private pilot complete a flight review under 14 CFR § 61.56?

• AEvery 12 calendar months
• BEvery 36 calendar months
• CEvery 24 calendar months
• DEvery 6 calendar months

Under 14 CFR § 61.57, what recency of experience is required to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers during daytime hours?

• A3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 60 days in any aircraft
• B5 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category
• C3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 30 days in an aircraft of the same make and…
• D3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same category,…

According to 14 CFR § 91.17, no person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within how many hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage?

• A8 hours
• B12 hours
• C24 hours
• D4 hours

Under 14 CFR § 91.151, what is the minimum fuel reserve required for a VFR flight in an airplane during daylight hours?

• AEnough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and thereafter for 45 minutes a…
• BEnough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and thereafter for 30 minutes a…
• CEnough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and thereafter for 60 minutes a…
• DEnough fuel to fly to the alternate airport plus 30 minutes reserve

Under 14 CFR § 91.151, what is the minimum fuel reserve required for an airplane operating under VFR at night?

• A30 minutes at normal cruising speed
• B60 minutes at normal cruising speed
• C45 minutes at normal cruising speed
• D20 minutes at maximum endurance speed

According to 14 CFR § 91.113 right-of-way rules, which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

• AA commercial airliner on final approach
• BA glider or balloon operating in uncontrolled airspace
• CAn air ambulance helicopter under ATC emergency priority
• DAn aircraft in distress

Under 14 CFR § 91.117, what is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted for an aircraft operating below 10,000 feet MSL in US airspace?

• A250 knots
• B200 knots
• C230 knots
• D180 knots

What are the vertical boundaries of Class A airspace in the contiguous United States?

• A14,500 feet MSL up to 60,000 feet MSL
• B18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL 600 (flight level 600)
• C12,000 feet AGL up to 45,000 feet MSL
• D10,000 feet MSL up to FL 450

What is the minimum flight visibility required for a VFR flight in Class B airspace?

• A1 statute mile
• B5 statute miles
• C3 statute miles
• D2 statute miles

What equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace?

• ATwo-way radio communications only
• BVOR receiver and DME
• CADS-B Out and Mode C transponder only within the lateral boundary
• DTwo-way radio communication capability, Mode C altitude-encoding transponder, and ADS-B O…

What communication requirement must be satisfied prior to entering Class D airspace?

• AEstablish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing air traffic contro…
• BReceive explicit ATC clearance to enter Class D airspace
• CFile a VFR flight plan with FSS prior to takeoff
• DBroadcast position on the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) 5 miles prior to entry

When an aircraft is in unaccelerated level flight, what is the relationship among the four fundamental forces of flight?

• ALift is greater than weight, and thrust is greater than drag
• BLift equals weight, and thrust equals drag
• CLift equals drag, and thrust equals weight
• DLift is greater than drag, and thrust equals weight

How is the aerodynamic Angle of Attack defined?

• AThe angle between the aircraft longitudinal axis and the horizon
• BThe angle between the wing pitch angle and the flight path vector
• CThe angle between the chord line of the wing and the relative wind
• DThe angle between the mean camber line and the fuselage centerline

What primary aerodynamic factor causes an aircraft wing to stall?

• AInsufficiency of engine power at low airspeeds
• BExcessive bank angle in a coordinated turn
• COperating below the published normal stall speed
• DExceeding the critical angle of attack

What is the primary effect of ground effect on an airplane during takeoff or landing near the runway?

• AA reduction in induced drag and a tendency to float along the runway
• BAn increase in parasite drag requiring additional thrust to maintain airspeed
• CA shift in center of pressure forward causing severe nose-up pitch
• DAn increase in stall speed due to wing downwash interference

What are standard sea level temperature and pressure values in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)?

• A0°C (32°F) and 29.92 inHg (1013.2 mb)
• B15°C (59°F) and 29.92 inHg (1013.2 mb)
• C20°C (68°F) and 30.00 inHg (1016.0 mb)
• D15°C (59°F) and 28.92 inHg (980.0 mb)

Under what conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

• AWarm moist air moving over a cold surface with strong surface winds
• BMoist air forced upward along slope of rising terrain
• CClear, calm nights with high relative humidity over ground surfaces that cool rapidly
• DCold air passing over warm water bodies causing rapid evaporation

In a METAR weather report, what do the contractions 'RA' and 'TS' represent?

• ARain Showers and Thermal Storm
• BRadar Alert and Temperature Spread
• CRough Air and Turbulence Severe
• DRain and Thunderstorm

How is a weather 'ceiling' defined in an official FAA aviation weather report?

• AThe height above the Earth's surface of the lowest layer of clouds reported as broken or…
• BThe lowest altitude at which cloud cover exceeds 10 percent of the sky
• CThe altitude of the highest scatter cloud layer reported by pilot report
• DThe base altitude of the freeze level reported in an AIRMET

What is the primary operational function of applying carburetor heat in a piston aircraft engine?

• AEnriching the fuel-air mixture during high-altitude climb
• BPreheating intake air to melt ice or prevent carburetor ice formation
• CIncreasing engine horsepower by raising intake manifold pressure
• DPreventing detonation by cooling the cylinder heads

If the pitot tube becomes completely blocked by ice while the pitot drain hole remains open, what will the airspeed indicator read?

• AIt will read maximum structural cruising speed (Vno)
• BIt will continue to indicate accurately because static pressure is unaffected
• CIt will drop to zero because ram air pressure drains out
• DIt will freeze at the exact airspeed value where blockage occurred

If the static system port becomes completely clogged during flight, how will the altimeter behave during a climb?

• AThe altimeter will indicate a rapid climb rate exceeding structural limits
• BThe altimeter will indicate a descent down to sea level
• CThe altimeter will fluctuate wildly based on airspeed changes
• DThe altimeter will remain frozen at the altitude where the static port became blocked

What is the standard scale ratio of FAA VFR Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

• A1:500,000
• B1:250,000
• C1:1,000,000
• D1:100,000

To convert a True Course to a Magnetic Course, what rule is applied regarding magnetic variation?

• AAdd East variation and subtract West variation
• BSubtract East variation and add West variation
• CMultiply True Course by magnetic deviation
• DSubtract compass deviation regardless of variation direction

What is the standard temperature lapse rate in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) troposphere below 36,000 feet?

• A1.0°C per 1,000 feet altitude
• B3.5°C per 1,000 feet altitude
• C2.0°C (3.5°F) per 1,000 feet altitude
• D4.5°C per 1,000 feet altitude

Which transponder squawk code indicates a general emergency to Air Traffic Control?

• A1200
• B7500
• C7600
• D7700

Which transponder squawk code should a pilot select if experiencing a complete two-way radio communications failure?

• A7600
• B7700
• C7500
• D1200

Unless otherwise specified by airport markings, visual signals, or publication in the Chart Supplement, all turns in an airport traffic pattern must be made in which direction?

• ATo the right
• BTo the left
• CAt the pilot's discretion depending on wind
• DClockwise

Under 14 CFR § 61.31, what engine power output threshold defines a 'high-performance airplane' requiring a specific logbook endorsement?

• AAn engine rated at exactly 200 horsepower
• BAn engine of 300 horsepower or greater
• CAn engine of more than 200 horsepower
• DAn engine equipped with a turbocharger producing over 250 horsepower

Which combination of aircraft equipment defines a 'complex airplane' under 14 CFR § 61.31?

• AConstant-speed propeller, pressurization system, and autopilot
• BRetractable landing gear, turbine engine, and full glass cockpit
• CEngine over 200 HP, retractable gear, and de-icing boots
• DRetractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller (or full digital engi…

To act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night, what specific takeoff and landing requirements must be met under 14 CFR § 61.57(b)?

• A3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before su…
• B3 takeoffs and 3 touch-and-go landings at night within the preceding 60 days
• C5 night landings to a full stop between official sunset and sunrise within the preceding…
• D1 night instrument flight of at least 1 hour duration within the preceding 30 days

Under 14 CFR § 61.60, if a pilot changes their permanent mailing address, how long may they exercise the privileges of their FAA pilot certificate without notifying the FAA Airmen Certification Branch?

• A60 days after the date of the move
• B30 days after the date of the move
• C90 days after the date of the move
• DUntil the expiration date of their medical certificate

What is the regulation under 14 CFR § 91.15 concerning dropping objects from an aircraft in flight?

• ADropping objects is strictly prohibited under all flight conditions
• BObjects may only be dropped over designated military drop zones with prior ATC clearance
• CNo PIC may allow any object to be dropped that creates a hazard to persons or property, b…
• DDropping objects requires a special waiver from the FAA Administrator approved 30 days in…

When two powered aircraft are approaching head-on or nearly so, what action must each pilot take under 14 CFR § 91.113(e)?

• AThe aircraft at the lower altitude has right of way and the upper aircraft climbs
• BThe faster aircraft must climb 500 feet while the slower aircraft maintains altitude
• CEach aircraft must alter course to the left
• DEach aircraft shall alter course to the right

Under 14 CFR § 91.119, what is the minimum safe altitude required over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement?

• AAn altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000…
• BAn altitude of 500 feet above the surface or any obstacle within 500 feet of the aircraft
• CAn altitude of 1,500 feet AGL over the entire city limits
• DAn altitude allowing a gliding distance of 2 miles to an open field

Under 14 CFR § 91.121, how should a pilot set their altimeter when flying below 18,000 feet MSL?

• ATo standard pressure of 29.92 inHg regardless of station reports
• BTo the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route within 100 nautica…
• CTo the departure airport field elevation for the entire duration of the flight
• DTo zero prior to takeoff to read Height Above Ground Level

Under 14 CFR § 91.123, when may a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance that has been obtained?

• AAt any time if the pilot determines a more efficient route is available
• BOnly after submitting a written notice to ATC via radio
• COnly in an emergency, in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resol…
• DWhenever weather conditions fall below VFR minimums

Under 14 CFR § 91.159, what VFR cruising altitude rule applies to an airplane operating in level cruising flight above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 090°?

• AEven thousand-foot MSL altitudes (e.g., 4,000, 6,000)
• BEven thousand-foot MSL altitudes plus 500 feet (e.g., 4,500, 6,500)
• COdd thousand-foot MSL altitudes (e.g., 3,000, 5,000)
• DOdd thousand-foot MSL altitudes plus 500 feet (e.g., 3,500, 5,500)

Under 14 CFR § 91.211, when is the minimum required flight crew mandated to use supplemental oxygen?

• AAt cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL for…
• BAt cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL for any duration of flight
• CAt cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL only if passengers are on board
• DAt cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL for night operations only

Under 14 CFR § 91.409, when is a 100-hour aircraft inspection required in addition to an annual inspection?

• AFor any aircraft operated for personal or business flight
• BWhen the aircraft carries any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, or gives flight…
• COnly if the aircraft is operated under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
• DWhen the aircraft total airframe time exceeds 2,000 hours

Under 14 CFR § 91.413, how frequently must an ATC transponder be inspected and tested to be legally operated in controlled airspace?

• AEvery 12 calendar months
• BEvery 100 hours of flight time
• CEvery 24 calendar months
• DEvery 36 calendar months

What are the basic VFR weather minimums (visibility and distance from clouds) in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• B5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• C3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds
• D1 statute mile visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal fr…

In Class G uncontrolled airspace during day conditions below 1,200 feet AGL, what are the VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements for an airplane?

• A1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
• B3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
• C3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
• D5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below

What are the minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements for a Special VFR (SVFR) clearance in Class D airspace during daytime?

• A3 statute miles visibility and 500 feet below clouds
• B1 statute mile flight visibility and clear of clouds
• C2 statute miles visibility and 1,000 feet cloud ceiling
• D1/2 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds

What is the radius of the 'Mode C Veil' surrounding primary Class B airports under 14 CFR § 91.215?

• A10 nautical miles
• B20 nautical miles
• C30 nautical miles
• D40 nautical miles