FAA PEP Knowledge Test — Private Pilot Airplane EU Part – FCL Conversion

Under 14 CFR § 61.56, what is required for a pilot holding an FAA Private Pilot Certificate to act as pilot in command of an aircraft?

• ASatisfactory completion of a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months
• BSatisfactory completion of a flight review within the preceding 12 calendar months
• CLogging at least 10 hours of solo flight time in the preceding 6 calendar months
• DPassing an annual online FAA aviation regulations proficiency exam

To act as pilot in command carrying passengers in a single-engine airplane during daylight hours, what flight currency requirement must be met under 14 CFR § 61.57?

• AMade 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same cate…
• BLogged at least 6 hours of instrument flight time within the preceding 6 calendar months
• CCompleted 3 full-stop landings at night within the preceding 90 days
• DMade 5 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 30 days

What is the night takeoff and landing currency requirement under 14 CFR § 61.57 for carrying passengers at night?

• A3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before su…
• B3 touch-and-go landings between official sunset and official sunrise within the preceding…
• C5 full-stop landings during evening twilight within the preceding 90 days
• D3 instrument approaches and 3 landings in night VMC within the preceding 6 calendar months

Which medical certificate is required for a pilot exercising the privileges of an FAA Private Pilot Certificate (without using BasicMed)?

• AAt least a Third-Class Medical Certificate
• BA First-Class Medical Certificate exclusively
• CA Second-Class Medical Certificate exclusively
• DA State Motor Vehicle Driver's License without any medical certification

For a pilot who has not reached their 40th birthday on the date of examination, what is the duration of a Third-Class Medical Certificate?

• A60 calendar months
• B24 calendar months
• C12 calendar months
• D36 calendar months

What is the maximum duration of a Third-Class Medical Certificate for a pilot who was 42 years old on the date of the medical examination?

• A24 calendar months
• B60 calendar months
• C12 calendar months
• D36 calendar months

Under 14 CFR § 61.113, a private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire. Which of the following exceptions is allowed?

• AA private pilot may share operating expenses with passengers on a pro-rata basis, limited…
• BA private pilot may charge passengers full charter rates provided the flight is for chari…
• CA private pilot may fly for hire if the total flight distance is less than 25 nautical mi…
• DA private pilot may receive salary for flying if operating under VFR weather conditions

According to 14 CFR § 91.3, who is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of an aircraft?

• AThe Pilot in Command (PIC)
• BThe Air Traffic Controller (ATC) on duty
• CThe FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) Inspector
• DThe aircraft owner or registered operator

What is the FAA regulation regarding the consumption of alcohol before acting as a crewmember on a civil aircraft under 14 CFR § 91.17?

• AWithin 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while having 0.04 perc…
• BWithin 12 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while having 0.08 per…
• CWithin 24 hours after consuming alcohol, regardless of blood alcohol concentration
• DWithin 4 hours after consuming alcohol, provided blood alcohol concentration is under 0.0…

Under 14 CFR § 91.207, Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) must be inspected within what timeframe?

• AWithin 12 calendar months after the last inspection
• BWithin 24 calendar months during the aircraft annual inspection
• CWithin 100 hours of time in service
• DWithin 6 calendar months after battery replacement

Under 14 CFR § 91.207, when must the battery of an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged?

• AWhen the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent…
• BEvery 24 calendar months regardless of usage
• CAfter any single emergency transmission lasting more than 15 minutes
• DDuring every annual aircraft inspection

What endorsement is required under 14 CFR § 61.31 to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane (engine with more than 200 horsepower)?

• AReceived ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance a…
• BPassed a formal FAA practical test given by a Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE)
• CLogged at least 10 hours of dual flight instruction in any complex or high-performance ai…
• DObtained a type rating for the specific make and model

Under 14 CFR § 61.31, what defines a 'complex airplane' requiring specific ground and flight training and a logbook endorsement?

• AAn airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller…
• BAn airplane equipped with a turbocharged engine producing over 300 horsepower
• CAn airplane certified for flight into known icing (FIKI) conditions
• DAn airplane with a maximum certificated takeoff weight exceeding 12,500 pounds

What is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when flying an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL in US airspace under 14 CFR § 91.117(a)?

• A250 knots
• B200 knots
• C180 knots
• D210 knots

What is the speed limit under 14 CFR § 91.117(c) when operating an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area or in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace?

• A200 knots indicated airspeed
• B250 knots indicated airspeed
• C150 knots indicated airspeed
• D180 knots indicated airspeed

Under 14 CFR § 91.211, what supplemental oxygen requirement applies to flight crewmembers during civil aircraft operations at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL?

• AFlight crewmembers must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the…
• BFlight crewmembers must use supplemental oxygen continuously for the entire duration at t…
• CAll occupants including passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen immediately…
• DSupplemental oxygen is optional below 15,000 feet MSL for non-pressurized aircraft

At what cabin pressure altitude must ALL occupants of a civil aircraft be provided with supplemental oxygen under 14 CFR § 91.211(a)(3)?

• AAbove 15,000 feet MSL
• BAbove 14,000 feet MSL
• CAbove 12,500 feet MSL
• DAbove 10,000 feet MSL

Under 14 CFR § 91.103, what preflight action is required of a Pilot in Command before any flight not in the vicinity of an airport?

• ABecome familiar with all available information concerning that flight, including weather…
• BFile a formal VFR flight plan with the nearest Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)
• CObtain a written weather briefing from a Certified Consulting Meteorologist
• DPerform a full engine compression test and log oil consumption

Under 14 CFR § 91.119, except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement?

• AAn altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000…
• BAn altitude of 500 feet above the surface or 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, o…
• CAn altitude of 1,500 feet AGL over any building or structure within 1 NM
• DAn altitude of 2,000 feet AGL over all urban residential zones

What is the minimum safe altitude specified in 14 CFR § 91.119(c) for operations over open water or sparsely populated areas?

• AAn aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or s…
• BAn altitude of at least 1,000 feet AGL must be maintained at all times
• CNo altitude restriction applies as long as an emergency landing site is within glide range
• DAn altitude of at least 500 feet MSL above mean high tide level

To qualify for operations under BasicMed (14 CFR Part 68 and § 61.23(c)(3)), what aircraft limitations must be observed?

• AAircraft certificated for not more than 6 occupants (including pilot), max takeoff weight…
• BAircraft certificated for not more than 4 occupants, max takeoff weight of 12,500 lbs, an…
• CSingle-engine piston aircraft only with maximum 2 passenger seats and non-retractable gear
• DAircraft with maximum takeoff weight of 4,000 lbs and maximum speed of 200 KIAS

Under BasicMed rules, what is the currency requirement for the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist (CMEC) completed by a state-licensed physician?

• AMust be completed within the preceding 48 calendar months
• BMust be completed within the preceding 24 calendar months
• CMust be completed within the preceding 12 calendar months
• DMust be completed once during the pilot's lifetime

Under NTSB Part 830, which of the following events requires IMMEDIATE notification to the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office?

• AIn-flight fire, flight control system malfunction or failure, or an aircraft collision in…
• BA flat tire during landing rollout requiring towing off the runway
• CEngine failure during ground taxi resulting in propeller blade tip damage
• DA 15-minute loss of radio communication while in Class E airspace

According to NTSB Part 830.15, within how many days must a written report be filed with the NTSB after an aircraft accident?

• A10 days
• B7 days
• C14 days
• D30 days

Under 14 CFR § 91.303, aerobatic flight is prohibited in which of the following locations or conditions?

• AOver any congested area, within lateral boundaries of surface areas of Class B/C/D/E airs…
• BBelow 3,000 feet AGL anywhere in US airspace or over open water
• CWithin 10 NM of any non-towered public use airport regardless of altitude
• DAt night under VFR conditions when flight visibility is between 3 SM and 5 SM

What basic VFR weather minimums (visibility and cloud clearance) apply to operating an airplane in Class D airspace?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• B3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• D1 statute mile visibility; clear of clouds

What VFR cloud clearance requirement is unique to Class B airspace under 14 CFR § 91.155?

• AClear of clouds
• B500 feet below clouds
• C1,000 feet above clouds
• D2,000 feet horizontal from clouds

What is required before a pilot operating VFR may enter Class B airspace under 14 CFR § 91.131?

• AMust receive an explicit ATC clearance stating 'Cleared to enter Class B airspace'
• BEstablishing two-way radio contact with ATC is sufficient once ATC states the aircraft ca…
• CFiling an IFR flight plan at least 1 hour prior to entry
• DSetting transponder code 1200 and advising CTAF of position

To enter Class C airspace under VFR, what radio communication requirement must be satisfied under 14 CFR § 91.130?

• AEstablish two-way radio communication with ATC by having ATC respond using the aircraft's…
• BReceive an explicit ATC clearance phrase stating 'Cleared to enter Class C airspace'
• CFile a VFR flight plan with Flight Service prior to engine start
• DMaintain continuous listening watch on 122.8 MHz UNICOM

What are the standard vertical dimensions of Class D airspace unless designated otherwise on an aeronautical chart?

• ASurface up to and including 2,500 feet above airport elevation (AGL)
• BSurface up to 4,000 feet above airport elevation (AGL)
• CSurface up to 10,000 feet MSL
• D1,200 feet AGL up to 18,000 feet MSL

In Class E airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL (and more than 2,500 feet AGL), what are the VFR flight visibility and cloud clearance minimums?

• A5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• B3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• C3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds
• D1 statute mile visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal

What daytime VFR visibility and cloud clearance minimums apply to an airplane operating in Class G airspace at 800 feet AGL?

• A1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
• B3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal
• C3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
• D5 statute miles visibility and 1 statute mile horizontal from clouds

What squawk code should a pilot select on an altimeter-reporting transponder for standard VFR flight in US airspace when not assigned a discrete code by ATC?

• ACode 1200
• BCode 7000
• CCode 7500
• DCode 7600

Under 14 CFR § 91.215, what is the 'Mode C Veil' surrounding primary Class B airports in the United States?

• AThe airspace within a 30 nautical mile radius of the primary Class B airport from the sur…
• BThe airspace within 10 NM of Class B outer boundary requiring mandatory flight plan filing
• CThe 5 NM surface cylinder where visual contact with tower must be maintained
• DThe airspace between 18,000 ft MSL and FL600 surrounding major hub airports

Under 14 CFR § 91.157, what weather minimums and pilot/equipment requirements apply to operating under Special VFR (SVFR) within a Class D surface area at night?

• A1 statute mile flight visibility, clear of clouds, and the pilot must be instrument-rated…
• B3 statute miles flight visibility, 500 feet below clouds, with standard VFR equipment
• C1/2 statute mile flight visibility, clear of clouds, and student pilot certificate
• D5 statute miles flight visibility, clear of clouds, with no instrument rating required

On an FAA Sectional Aeronautical Chart, what does a dashed blue line surrounding an airport signify?

• AThe lateral boundary of Class D surface airspace
• BThe lateral boundary of Class C surface airspace
• CA Military Operations Area (MOA)
• DA Prohibited Area boundary

What is indicated by a solid magenta border line surrounding an airport on an FAA Sectional Chart?

• AClass C airspace boundary
• BClass B airspace boundary
• CClass D airspace boundary
• DRestricted airspace boundary

What does a magenta shaded vignette (feathered magenta band) indicate on a Sectional Chart?

• AClass E airspace floor begins at 700 feet AGL on the soft side of the vignette
• BClass E airspace floor begins at 1,200 feet AGL
• CClass G airspace extends from surface to 14,500 feet MSL
• DA Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA) boundary

What rule applies to operating a VFR flight through a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

• AVFR flight is permitted without ATC clearance, but pilots should exercise extreme caution…
• BVFR flight is strictly prohibited when the MOA is active
• CVFR flight is allowed only under IFR flight plan and positive ATC control
• DVFR aircraft must maintain an altitude below 500 feet AGL while inside the MOA

What is the requirement for operating an aircraft in a Restricted Area designated on an aeronautical chart?

• ANo person may operate an aircraft within a Restricted Area without advance permission fro…
• BVFR aircraft may enter freely during daylight hours provided visibility is at least 5 SM
• CEntry is allowed provided the aircraft maintains an altitude above 3,000 feet AGL
• DRestricted Areas exist only over foreign territories and do not apply to US pilots

While on final approach to a towered airport, the control tower directs a FLASHING RED light gun signal to your aircraft. What does this light signal mean to an aircraft in flight?

• AAirport unsafe, do not land
• BGive way to other aircraft and continue circling
• CCleared to land immediately
• DReturn for landing (to be followed by steady green)

While taxiing on the airport surface, the control tower directs a STEADY RED light gun signal toward your aircraft. What action must you take?

• AStop immediately
• BTaxi off the runway in use
• CCleared to taxi
• DReturn to starting point on airport

Under 14 CFR § 91.159, what VFR cruising altitude rule applies when operating an aircraft above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 090 degrees?

• AOdd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (e.g., 5,500 feet, 7,500 feet)
• BEven thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (e.g., 4,500 feet, 6,500 feet)
• CAny even thousand-foot MSL altitude (e.g., 4,000 feet, 6,000 feet)
• DAny altitude selected by the pilot as long as altimeter is set to 29.92

When operating on a magnetic course of 270 degrees above 3,000 feet AGL under VFR, which of the following is an appropriate cruising altitude?

• A6,500 feet MSL
• B5,500 feet MSL
• C7,000 feet MSL
• D4,000 feet MSL

What is the key difference between US ATC phraseology 'Line up and wait' and former terminology 'Position and hold'?

• A'Line up and wait' is the current standard ICAO-aligned US ATC instruction authorizing a…
• B'Line up and wait' permits the pilot to commence takeoff roll immediately without further…
• C'Line up and wait' is used only for intersection takeoffs during night operations
• D'Line up and wait' authorizes taxiing across multiple intersecting runways to the departu…

What common frequency is designated as the MULTICOM frequency for self-announce position reports at non-towered US airports that have no UNICOM or FSS?

• A122.9 MHz
• B122.8 MHz
• C123.0 MHz
• D121.5 MHz

What is the primary function of a VOR radials representation on FAA Sectional Charts, and how are VOR radials oriented?

• ARadials project outward from the VOR station and are oriented with respect to Magnetic No…
• BRadials project inward toward the VOR station and are oriented with respect to True North
• CRadials represent barometric pressure contours adjusted to ISA sea level
• DRadials indicate minimum IFR obstacle clearance altitudes (MOCA)

On an FAA Sectional Chart, what does the Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) printed in each quadrangle represent?

• AThe elevation of the highest feature (natural or man-made) plus a safety margin, rounded…
• BThe minimum vectoring altitude assigned by ATC for radar identification
• CThe average terrain elevation above sea level across the quadrangle
• DThe maximum runway length available in feet