FAA PAT Knowledge Test — Private Pilot Airplane/Recreational Pilot - Transition

Under 14 CFR § 61.113, what operating expenses of a flight may a Private Pilot share on a pro-rata basis with passengers?

• AFuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees only
• BFuel, oil, aircraft depreciation, and insurance costs
• CFuel, oil, pilot lodging, and passenger meal expenses
• DAll flight costs including engine overhaul reserves

Unlike a Recreational Pilot who is restricted to carrying no more than one passenger, a Private Pilot may carry how many passengers?

• AUp to 3 passengers maximum
• BAs many passengers as the aircraft is certificated to seat
• CUp to 5 passengers maximum under VFR rules
• DNo more than 4 passengers unless flying under Part 135

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night, what recent flight experience must a Private Pilot log within the preceding 90 days under 14 CFR § 61.57(b)?

• A3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before su…
• B3 takeoffs and 3 touch-and-go landings between sunset and sunrise in any single-engine ai…
• C5 takeoffs and 5 full-stop landings during night civil twilight in the preceding 60 days
• D1 hour of instrument flight time and 3 full-stop landings at night in the preceding 30 da…

For a private pilot who has not reached their 40th birthday, a Third-Class Medical Certificate issued on May 15, 2026, expires at the end of the last day of which month?

• AMay 2028 (24 calendar months)
• BMay 2029 (36 calendar months)
• CMay 2031 (60 calendar months)
• DMay 2036 (120 calendar months)

A Third-Class Medical Certificate issued to a private pilot on their 45th birthday expires at the end of the last day of which calendar month?

• A12th calendar month after examination
• B24th calendar month after examination
• C36th calendar month after examination
• D60th calendar month after examination

To operate an aircraft under BasicMed pursuant to 14 CFR § 61.23(c)(3) and Part 68, what condition must a pilot satisfy regarding FAA medical certification history?

• AMust have held a valid FAA medical certificate at any time after July 14, 2006, that was…
• BMust have held a valid First-Class medical certificate within the preceding 24 calendar m…
• CMust obtain an initial BasicMed waiver directly from the FAA Aerospace Medical Certificat…
• DMust never have had a medical condition listed under Special Issuance rules

Under 14 CFR § 61.56, what is the minimum duration and structure of a flight review required every 24 calendar months to act as pilot-in-command?

• A2 hours of flight instruction and 1 hour of ground instruction covering Part 91 flight ru…
• B1 hour of flight instruction and 1 hour of ground instruction given by an authorized flig…
• C3 hours of flight instruction including cross-country and night operations
• D1 hour of solo maneuvers and a written examination administered by a DPE

Under 14 CFR § 61.69, what flight experience is required for a Private Pilot to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider?

• AAt least 40 hours PIC time in airplanes and a Commercial Pilot certificate
• BAt least 50 hours of instrument flight time and a flight instructor rating
• CAt least 75 hours of cross-country flight time and a tailwheel endorsement
• DAt least 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, pl…

Under 14 CFR § 61.113(d), a private pilot may be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses when flying in search and location operations, provided that:

• AThe pilot logs at least 500 total flight hours prior to the operation
• BThe reimbursement includes pilot compensation at standard commercial rates
• CThe operation is under the direction and control of a Federal, State, or local agency or…
• DThe flight is conducted strictly within 50 nautical miles of the home airport

Under 14 CFR § 91.146, a private pilot acting as PIC for a charitable passenger-carrying flight must ensure the sponsoring organization notifies which entity at least 7 days before the event?

• AThe local FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO)
• BThe National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
• CThe Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
• DThe local Airport Operations Center

Which set of documents must be on board an aircraft during flight to satisfy FAA airworthiness and operational requirements (mnemonic ARROW)?

• AAirworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, Radio Station License (if internatio…
• BAirworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, Owner Manual, Pilot Logbook, Mainten…
• CAirworthiness Directive List, Registration, Engine Logbook, Pilot Certificate, Medical Ce…
• DAircraft Bill of Sale, Registration, Radio Operator Permit, Operating Handbook, Annual In…

Under FAA regulations (14 CFR § 47.40), an FAA Aircraft Registration Certificate issued to a U.S. civil aircraft expires after how many years unless renewed?

• A7 years
• B3 years
• C5 years
• D10 years

Under 14 CFR § 91.413, no person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within the preceding:

• A12 calendar months
• B18 calendar months
• C24 calendar months
• D36 calendar months

Under 14 CFR § 91.207, an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) battery must be replaced or recharged when the transmitter has been in use for more than:

• A30 minutes cumulative, or when 25% of its useful life has expired
• B1 cumulative hour, or when 50 percent of its useful life (or useful life charge) has expi…
• C2 cumulative hours, or when 75 percent of its useful life has expired
• D5 cumulative hours, or when the expiration date printed on the battery is reached

Under 14 CFR § 91.409, what is the difference between an Annual Inspection and a 100-Hour Inspection?

• AAn Annual Inspection must be performed by an Inspection Authorization (IA) holder every 1…
• BAn Annual Inspection applies only to commercial airliners, while 100-hour inspections app…
• CA 100-hour inspection satisfies the Annual Inspection requirement only if conducted by a…
• DAn Annual Inspection is required every 100 flight hours, while a 100-hour inspection is r…

When an aircraft undergoes a major alteration or modification under a Supplemental Type Certificate (STC), where must approval and operational limitations be recorded?

• AOnly in the pilot's personal logbook
• BOn an FAA Form 8130-3 attached to the airworthiness certificate
• CIn the aircraft maintenance logbooks and on FAA Form 337 (Major Repair and Alteration)
• DIn the airport manager's office filing system

Who is primarily responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition and that Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with under 14 CFR § 91.403?

• AThe FAA Aviation Safety Inspector
• BThe owner or operator of the aircraft
• CThe certificated flight instructor who last flew the aircraft
• DThe chief mechanic at the local FBO

Under 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix A(c), which maintenance action is classified as preventive maintenance that a certificated Private Pilot may perform on an aircraft owned or operated by that pilot?

• AReplacing major structural wing rib components
• BOverhauling an engine carburetor
• CReplacing safety belts, changing landing gear tires, and servicing landing gear wheel bea…
• DRepairing internal flight control cable splices

Under 14 CFR § 91.213(d), before flying an aircraft with inoperative equipment without a Minimum Equipment List (MEL), a pilot must verify that the inoperative item is NOT required by which of the following?

• AVFR day type certification, Kind of Operation Equipment List (KOEL), 14 CFR § 91.205, or…
• BThe airport manager's local operating policy or state aeronautical charter rules
• CThe pilot's personal logbook endorsements or flight instructor recommendations
• DThe local ATC tower chief or flight service station specialist

What is the primary purpose of a Special Flight Permit (Ferry Permit) issued by the FAA under 14 CFR § 21.197?

• ATo allow commercial passenger operations in uncertificated aircraft
• BTo authorize flying an aircraft that does not meet applicable airworthiness requirements…
• CTo permit aerobatic flight demonstrations over populated cities
• DTo bypass annual inspection requirements permanently

Under 14 CFR § 91.15, when is a pilot permitted to drop an object from an aircraft in flight?

• ADropping objects from an aircraft is strictly prohibited under all circumstances
• BOnly if prior written authorization is obtained from the NTSB
• COnly during declared emergency military operations
• DIf reasonable precautions are taken to avoid creating a hazard to persons or property on…

Under 14 CFR § 91.17, what are the restrictions regarding alcohol consumption before acting as a crewmember of a civil aircraft?

• AWithin 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, or while having an alcoho…
• BWithin 12 hours after alcohol consumption, or while having a blood alcohol concentration…
• CWithin 24 hours after alcohol consumption, regardless of blood alcohol level
• DWithin 4 hours after alcohol consumption if fewer than two drinks were consumed

Under 14 CFR § 91.211, when is supplemental oxygen required for the required flight crew during flight in an unpressurized aircraft?

• AAt cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL up to 12,000 feet MSL
• BAt cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL for…
• CAt all cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL regardless of duration
• DOnly at cabin pressure altitudes above 18,000 feet MSL

According to VFR cruising altitude rules in 14 CFR § 91.159, what altitude should be maintained when flying VFR on a magnetic course of 090° above 3,000 feet AGL?

• AEven thousand-foot MSL altitude (e.g., 4,000 or 6,000 feet)
• BOdd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (e.g., 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500 feet)
• CEven thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (e.g., 4,500 or 6,500 feet)
• DAny altitude chosen by the pilot provided ATC is notified

Under 14 CFR § 91.303, aerobatic flight is prohibited below what minimum altitude above the surface?

• A1,500 feet AGL
• B1,000 feet AGL
• C2,000 feet AGL
• D500 feet AGL

What requirement must a pilot satisfy prior to entering Class B airspace under VFR?

• AReceive an explicit ATC clearance stating 'cleared to enter Class B airspace'
• BEstablish two-way radio contact by hearing the controller repeat the aircraft callsign
• CFile an IFR flight plan with Flight Service 1 hour prior to entry
• DMaintain a minimum flight visibility of 5 statute miles at all times

To enter Class C airspace under VFR, what condition must be met regarding radio communication with ATC?

• AObtain an explicit entry clearance from approach control
• BEstablish two-way radio communication with ATC prior to entering, confirmed when ATC uses…
• CSquawk 1200 on the transponder and broadcast intentions on CTAF
• DMaintain visual contact with the primary airport tower

What are the standard vertical and lateral boundaries of Class D airspace surrounding an operational airport tower?

• ASurface up to 4,000 feet AGL, 10 NM radius
• BSurface up to 10,000 feet MSL, 30 NM radius
• CSurface up to 2,500 feet above airport elevation (AGL), typically within a 4 NM radius
• D1,200 feet AGL up to 18,000 feet MSL, 20 NM radius

What are the VFR minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet AGL during DAYLIGHT hours?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal from clouds
• B1 statute mile visibility; 1,000 ft above and 1,000 ft below clouds
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 ft above and 1 mile horizontal from clouds
• D1 statute mile visibility; clear of clouds

What are the VFR minimum visibility and cloud clearance requirements in Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from…
• B1 statute mile visibility; clear of clouds
• C3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds
• D5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal

What are the basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from…
• B3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below and 1 mile horizontal from clouds
• D1 statute mile visibility; clear of clouds

What is required for a pilot to operate an airplane under Special VFR (SVFR) at NIGHT within Class D surface airspace under 14 CFR § 91.157?

• AAt least 3 statute miles visibility and an instrument rated co-pilot
• BAn ATC clearance and at least 1 statute mile flight visibility, clear of clouds
• CAn ATC clearance, at least 1 statute mile flight visibility, clear of clouds, and the pil…
• DSpecial VFR is strictly prohibited at night under all circumstances

Under 14 CFR § 91.215 and § 91.225, an altitude-encoding transponder and ADS-B Out equipment are required when operating within what distance of a Class B primary airport (Mode C Veil)?

• AWithin 30 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport, from the surface up to 10,000 fe…
• BWithin 12 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport up to 3,000 feet AGL
• CWithin 50 nautical miles of the Class B primary airport at all altitudes
• DOnly within the lateral boundaries of the Class B surface area

What is the difference between a Prohibited Area and a Restricted Area regarding VFR flight operations?

• AFlight within a Prohibited Area is completely forbidden; flight within a Restricted Area…
• BProhibited Areas apply only to commercial aircraft, while Restricted Areas apply to VFR p…
• CRestricted Areas exist only above FL180, while Prohibited Areas exist from surface to 10,…
• DProhibited Areas permit VFR transit with squawk code 1200, whereas Restricted Areas requi…

How should a VFR pilot approach operating within a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

• AVFR pilots are legally prohibited from entering an active MOA
• BVFR pilots must obtain an IFR clearance prior to entering an MOA
• CVFR flight within an MOA is permitted without clearance, but pilots should exercise extre…
• DVFR pilots may enter an MOA only at night with position lights flashing

Under 14 CFR § 91.103, how should a pilot obtain information regarding Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) along a planned cross-country flight route?

• ABy obtaining an official FSS briefing or reviewing NOTAMs prior to flight
• BBy monitoring local news broadcasts prior to engine start
• CTFRs are automatically broadcast on VOR voice channels every 15 minutes
• DTFR information is only required for flights operating above 18,000 feet MSL

What service is provided to VFR aircraft operating within a Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)?

• AMandatory radar separation for all VFR aircraft
• BAutomatic IFR clearance upon entering the boundary
• CEmergency ejection advisories and search-and-rescue tracking only
• DVoluntary radar sequencing and separation between participating VFR aircraft and IFR airc…

What is mandatory for a pilot prior to operating an aircraft VFR within 60 nautical miles of the Washington, DC VOR/DME (DCA)?

• AFiling a defense VFR flight plan with Customs and Border Protection
• BCompleting the FAA online Special Awareness Training course for the Washington DC Airspace
• CHolding an Instrument Rating and a Commercial Pilot certificate
• DLanding at a designated military airbase for pre-clearance

If an aircraft is located directly SOUTH of a VOR station, what OBS selection will result in a centered CDI needle with a 'TO' indication?

• A360°
• B180°
• C090°
• D270°

Under 14 CFR § 91.171, what is the maximum permissible bearing error when conducting a VOR check using an FAA-approved ground checkpoint?

• A±2 degrees
• B±6 degrees
• C±4 degrees
• D±8 degrees

What causes 'reverse sensing' when navigating using a VOR receiver?

• AFlying away from a VOR station with a 'TO' indication selected on the OBS
• BSelecting an OBS heading that is opposite to the aircraft's physical heading relative to…
• CFlying through thunderstorm precipitation near the VOR transmitter
• DOperating the VOR receiver at altitudes above 18,000 feet MSL

How many operational GPS satellites are required for Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) to detect a faulty satellite and issue an alert?

• A3 satellites
• B4 satellites
• C5 satellites (or 4 satellites plus baro-altitude encoding)
• D2 satellites

What is the definition of magnetic variation in aeronautical navigation?

• AThe angular difference between True North and Magnetic North at any given geographic loca…
• BThe error caused by magnetic disturbances produced by aircraft electrical equipment
• CThe change in compass heading caused by aircraft acceleration or deceleration
• DThe difference between Indicated Airspeed and True Airspeed

When flying on an East or West heading in the Northern Hemisphere, what error will the magnetic compass display during acceleration (mnemonic ANDS)?

• AThe compass will indicate a turn toward the South
• BThe compass will indicate a turn toward the North
• CThe compass card will tilt downward and indicate zero airspeed
• DThe compass will remain completely motionless regardless of speed changes

When initiating a turn from a NORTH heading in the Northern Hemisphere, how does the magnetic compass initially behave (mnemonic UNOS)?

• AIt immediately leads the turn and indicates a heading past South
• BIt lags behind or initially indicates a turn in the opposite direction
• CIt points accurately toward East without any dip error
• DIt spins rapidly 360 degrees clockwise

For the purpose of meeting Private Pilot aeronautical experience requirements under 14 CFR § 61.1(b), a cross-country flight in an airplane must involve a landing at an airport located at what minimum distance from the departure point?

• AMore than 50 nautical miles straight-line distance
• BMore than 25 nautical miles straight-line distance
• CMore than 100 nautical miles total route distance
• DMore than 15 nautical miles from the departure airport boundary

What is the proper procedure for opening and closing a VFR Flight Plan filed with a Flight Service Station (FSS)?

• AFiling a VFR flight plan automatically opens it at scheduled departure time; control towe…
• BThe pilot must activate (open) the flight plan with FSS after takeoff via radio, and clos…
• CATC automatically opens and closes all VFR flight plans based on primary radar contact
• DVFR flight plans are opened by ground control and closed by emergency dispatchers

What distinguishes Pilotage from Dead Reckoning in visual cross-country flight navigation?

• APilotage uses radio VOR signals, while Dead Reckoning relies on GPS waypoints
• BPilotage is night visual navigation, while Dead Reckoning is instrument hood flying
• CPilotage is navigation by reference to visual landmarks on a chart, while Dead Reckoning…
• DPilotage uses pressure altitude, while Dead Reckoning uses radar altimeter readings