FAA IFP Knowledge Test — Instrument Rating Foreign Pilot via Non-BASA (61.75)

Under 14 CFR § 61.75, what is the primary regulatory condition governing the exercise of instrument privileges on a U.S. foreign pilot certificate issued via non-BASA procedures?

• AThe foreign pilot license and instrument rating must be valid and current according to th…
• BThe pilot must log 50 hours of dual instrument instruction in the United States every 12…
• CThe foreign pilot certificate automatically grants permanent U.S. instrument privileges e…
• DThe pilot must undergo an annual flight review with an FAA Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE…

To act as pilot-in-command (PIC) of a civil aircraft under IFR in the U.S. National Airspace System, what recency of experience must a pilot accomplish within the preceding 6 calendar months under 14 CFR § 61.57(c)?

• AAt least 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tasks, and intercepting and trac…
• B3 instrument approaches, 3 hours of simulated instrument flight, and 1 cross-country flig…
• C10 instrument approaches in actual instrument meteorological conditions (IMC) and an Inst…
• D6 hours of instrument flight time including 3 landings to a full stop in night conditions.

If a pilot fails to maintain instrument recency during the initial 6-month period and the subsequent 6-month grace period, what is required to regain IFR PIC privileges under 14 CFR § 61.57(d)?

• APass an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by an authorized instructor, DPE,…
• BComplete 6 instrument approaches and 6 hours of solo flight time in visual meteorological…
• CRetake the FAA IFP Knowledge Test and submit a new foreign license verification applicati…
• DFly 10 hours under VFR with a safety pilot while performing holding patterns and VOR radi…

Under 14 CFR § 91.167, what minimum fuel reserve is required for an IFR flight in a powered aircraft under non-turbine rules?

• AEnough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate airport…
• BEnough fuel to fly to the destination and alternate airport plus a 30-minute reserve at e…
• CEnough fuel to reach the destination airport plus 45 minutes at holding speed, with no al…
• DEnough fuel for 2 hours of flight time beyond the estimated time of arrival at the destin…

What is the standard '1-2-3 rule' under 14 CFR § 91.169 for determining whether an alternate airport must be designated on an IFR flight plan? Assume the destination has a published standard instrument approach and the flight is in an airplane.

• AAn alternate is required unless for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the ceili…
• BAn alternate is required if for 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, the ceiling is below…
• CAn alternate is required for all IFR flights regardless of weather forecasts.
• DAn alternate is required unless the destination ceiling is 3,000 feet AGL and visibility…

If an airport with a standard precision approach is listed as an alternate on an IFR flight plan, what are the standard alternate weather minimums required at the ETA under 14 CFR § 91.169?

• ACeiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
• BCeiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
• CCeiling 1,000 feet and visibility 3 statute miles.
• DCeiling 400 feet and visibility 1 statute mile.

What standard alternate weather minimums apply to an airport with only a non-precision approach procedure listed as an alternate on an IFR flight plan under 14 CFR § 91.169?

• ACeiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
• BCeiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles.
• CCeiling 1,000 feet and visibility 1 statute mile.
• DCeiling 500 feet and visibility 1.5 statute miles.

Under 14 CFR § 91.175, which visual reference permits a pilot to descend below the DA/DH or MDA on an instrument approach, provided all other conditions are met?

• AThe threshold lights, touchdown zone markings, or visual glideslope indicator (VASI/PAPI).
• BA cloud break showing blue sky over the center of the airport field.
• CThe automated surface weather observation system (AWOS) station structure.
• DAn unlighted hangar located adjacent to the parallel taxiway.

When executing an instrument approach using the approach lighting system (ALS) as visual reference, 14 CFR § 91.175 permits descent below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation ONLY if:

• AThe red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable.
• BThe runway end identifier lights (REIL) are flashing brightly.
• CThe tower controller gives explicit verbal authorization to land.
• DThe aircraft groundspeed is below 100 knots.

What is the maximum permissible operational error when performing an operational VOR equipment accuracy check using a VOR Test Facility (VOT) signal under 14 CFR § 91.171?

• APlus or minus 4 degrees.
• BPlus or minus 6 degrees.
• CPlus or minus 2 degrees.
• DPlus or minus 8 degrees.

When conducting an airborne VOR operational check over a designated airborne checkpoint under 14 CFR § 91.171, what is the maximum permissible error?

• APlus or minus 6 degrees.
• BPlus or minus 4 degrees.
• CPlus or minus 2 degrees.
• DPlus or minus 10 degrees.

What information must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or operational record to document a successful VOR accuracy check under 14 CFR § 91.171?

• ADate, place, bearing error, and signature.
• BPilot certificate number, flight time, weather conditions, and tachometer reading.
• CAltimeter setting, outside air temperature, fuel remaining, and aircraft serial number.
• DGPS database cycle date, transponder code, groundspeed, and inspector license number.

Under 14 CFR § 91.185, what sequence of routes should a pilot follow in the event of a total two-way radio communications failure while operating under IFR in IMC?

• AAssigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed (AVE F).
• BFiled, Expected, Vectored, Assigned (FEVA).
• CDirect to destination, expected route, published airway.
• DLowest MEA published along the intended line of flight.

Under 14 CFR § 91.185, what altitude should a pilot maintain during a two-way radio communications failure in IMC?

• AThe HIGHEST of: Assigned altitude, Minimum IFR altitude (MEA/MOCA), or Expected altitude…
• BThe LOWEST of: Assigned altitude, Minimum IFR altitude, or Expected altitude.
• CMaintain 10,000 feet MSL until within 25 NM of the destination airport.
• DDescend immediately to the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) published on the chart.

What basic instrument flight equipment is required by 14 CFR § 91.205(d) for IFR flight (in addition to standard VFR day/night equipment)?

• AGenerator/alternator, Rate-of-turn indicator, Altimeter (sensitive/adjustable), Ball (sli…
• BAutopilot with altitude hold, Radar altimeter, Weather radar, and TCAS II.
• CDual GPS receivers, Electronic Flight Bag (EFB), De-icing boots, and HF radio.
• DVOR receiver, Transponder Mode S, DME, and radio altimeter.

Under 14 CFR § 91.213, what must a pilot do if an item of installed equipment without a Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is found inoperative prior to an IFR flight?

• AVerify it is not required by 91.205, the aircraft KOEL/KIND, or an AD, then deactivate/re…
• BGround the aircraft immediately and wait for an FAA Inspector to issue a ferry permit.
• CCross out the item in the flight manual and continue the flight provided weather is VFR.
• DDeactivate the battery master switch and perform a visual check of all flight control sur…

Under 14 CFR § 91.109(c), no person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless:

• AThe other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least a private pilot c…
• BA Certified Flight Instructor (CFI) is seated in the rear passenger cabin.
• CThe aircraft is equipped with dual flight management computers (FMC).
• DThe flight is conducted entirely within Class A airspace under radar surveillance.

What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen use by flight crew members under 14 CFR § 91.211 during unpressurized aircraft operations?

• AContinuous use is required above 12,500 feet MSL up to 14,000 feet MSL for that part of t…
• BContinuous use is required for all occupants above 10,000 feet MSL at all times.
• CContinuous use is required only above 18,000 feet MSL for flight crew.
• DContinuous use is required for flight crew above 12,000 feet MSL for any duration.

Under 14 CFR § 91.173, when operating an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR, no person may operate unless:

• AAn IFR flight plan has been filed and an appropriate ATC clearance has been received.
• BThe aircraft is equipped with a operational radar altimeter and TCAS.
• CThe flight plan has been submitted at least 24 hours prior to departure.
• DVisual flight rules (VFR) flight conditions exist throughout the entire route.

When operating on an IFR clearance in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet MSL, what altitude must a pilot fly when ATC clears the aircraft to 'VFR-on-Top' under 14 CFR § 91.179?

• AAn appropriate VFR altitude specified for the direction of flight (odd/even thousands plu…
• BAny cardinal thousand-foot altitude assigned by ATC regardless of heading.
• C1,000 feet above the highest cloud tops along the route.
• DThe published Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) plus 2,000 feet.

What is the mandatory inspection interval for the aircraft static pressure system and altimeter system for IFR operation under 14 CFR § 91.411?

• AWithin the preceding 24 calendar months.
• BWithin the preceding 12 calendar months.
• CWithin the preceding 100 hours of flight time.
• DWithin the preceding 6 calendar months.

Under 14 CFR § 91.413, how often must an ATC transponder be tested and inspected for operation under IFR?

• AWithin the preceding 24 calendar months.
• BWithin the preceding 12 calendar months.
• CWithin the preceding 36 calendar months.
• DEvery 50 flight hours.

According to 14 CFR § 91.177, what is the minimum obstacle clearance altitude over mountainous areas when flying under IFR where no MEA is published?

• A2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles fr…
• B1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 nautical miles.
• C1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 nautical miles.
• D2,500 feet above airport elevation within 10 nautical miles.

Under 14 CFR § 91.177, what is the minimum obstacle clearance altitude over non-mountainous terrain for IFR flight when no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed on the chart?

• A1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles fr…
• B500 feet above the highest obstacle within 2 nautical miles.
• C2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 nautical miles.
• D1,000 feet above ground level across the entire flight plan route.

If an ATC clearance contains a clearance void time and the pilot fails to depart prior to that time, what immediate action is required by the pilot?

• AAdvise ATC as soon as possible (and no later than 30 minutes) of the intention to cancel…
• BDepart immediately under VFR and request an IFR clearance airborne.
• CWait 1 hour on the ground before contacting clearance delivery again.
• DProceed with the departure using the original route and altitude assignment.

What airspace classification encompasses all U.S. airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including Flight Level 600 (FL600)?

• AClass A airspace.
• BClass B airspace.
• CClass E airspace.
• DClass G airspace.

What is the altimeter setting requirement when climbing through 18,000 feet MSL into Class A airspace in the U.S. National Airspace System?

• ASet the altimeter to standard pressure of 29.92 inches of Mercury (1013.2 hPa).
• BMaintain the local barometric altimeter setting reported by the nearest station.
• CSet the altimeter to field elevation zero.
• DAdjust the altimeter to match the density altitude calculation.

What elements compose a standard initial ATC IFR clearance as represented by the acronym CRAFT?

• AClearance limit, Route of flight, Altitude, Frequency, and Transponder code.
• BCourse, Radar vector, Approach procedure, Fuel reserve, and Time limit.
• CControl zone, Runway in use, Altimeter setting, Fix, and Transition.
• DClimb gradient, Restriction, Arrival, Final approach fix, and Taxi route.

What is the primary difference between a Contact Approach and a Visual Approach under U.S. IFR procedures?

• AA Contact Approach must be requested by the pilot, requires 1 SM clear of clouds, while a…
• BA Contact Approach requires VFR weather conditions (3,000 ft ceiling / 5 SM visibility),…
• CA Visual Approach can only be executed at non-towered airports, while a Contact Approach…
• DThere is no difference; both terms are interchangeable in U.S. ATC phraseology.

When flying an IFR departure from an airport with a published Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP), what standard climb gradient must be maintained unless a higher gradient is published?

• A200 feet per nautical mile (ft/NM).
• B150 feet per nautical mile (ft/NM).
• C500 feet per minute (fpm).
• D350 feet per nautical mile (ft/NM).

What does a published Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) on an IFR en route chart guarantee to the pilot?

• AObstacle clearance along the entire route segment, but VOR signal coverage only within 22…
• BUninterrupted VOR navigation signal reception along the entire route segment up to FL180.
• CTwo-way VHF radio communication coverage with ATC throughout the segment.
• DRadar identification and vectoring services down to 500 feet AGL.

What is the meaning of a Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA) symbol on an FAA IFR En Route Low Altitude Chart?

• AThe lowest altitude at which an off-airway navigation fix can be identified using VOR sig…
• BThe lowest altitude at which GPS satellite tracking is guaranteed.
• CThe minimum altitude required to establish two-way voice contact with Flight Service.
• DThe altitude at which decision height (DH) transitions to minimum descent altitude (MDA).

What does a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) symbol on an en route chart indicate?

• AThe lowest altitude at which a fix must be crossed when proceeding in the direction of a…
• BThe maximum altitude permitted when crossing an international FIR boundary.
• CThe mandatory altitude for beginning a teardrop holding entry pattern.
• DThe altitude at which visual contact with the runway environment must be established.

What speed limit applies to civil aircraft operating at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area under 14 CFR § 91.117?

• A200 knots indicated airspeed (IAS).
• B250 knots indicated airspeed (IAS).
• C180 knots indicated airspeed (IAS).
• D160 knots indicated airspeed (IAS).

What is the maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft operating in the U.S. National Airspace System below 10,000 feet MSL under 14 CFR § 91.117(a)?

• A250 knots IAS.
• B200 knots IAS.
• C300 knots IAS.
• DMach 0.78.

When flying in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace under IFR below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours, what is the minimum flight visibility requirement?

• A1 statute mile.
• B3 statute miles.
• C5 statute miles.
• DClear of clouds with 1/2 statute mile.

What is the standard holding pattern maximum holding speed for civil aircraft from 6,001 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL per AIM 5-3-8?

• A230 knots IAS.
• B200 knots IAS.
• C265 knots IAS.
• D175 knots IAS.

At what maximum IAS may a civil aircraft hold between MHA and 6,000 feet MSL unless otherwise depicted or cleared by ATC?

• A200 knots IAS.
• B230 knots IAS.
• C175 knots IAS.
• D250 knots IAS.

What is the standard direction of turns in a standard holding pattern unless instructed otherwise by ATC?

• ARight turns.
• BLeft turns.
• CPilot's discretion based on wind direction.
• DAlternating left and right turns on each circuit.

What standard timing should be used for the inbound leg of a holding pattern at or below 14,000 feet MSL?

• A1 minute.
• B1.5 minutes.
• C2 minutes.
• D3 minutes.

When approaching a holding fix for a standard holding pattern (right turns), the holding radial is 090° (inbound course 270°). If the aircraft heading on arrival is 090°, which entry procedure is recommended by the AIM?

• ADirect entry.
• BTeardrop entry.
• CParallel entry.
• DPrecision entry.

For a standard holding pattern (right turns) on the 360° radial (inbound course 180°), an aircraft approaches the fix on a heading of 150°. What holding entry sector does this fall into?

• ATeardrop entry.
• BParallel entry.
• CDirect entry.
• DProcedure turn entry.

In a standard holding pattern (right turns) on the 360° radial (inbound 180°), an aircraft approaches the fix on heading 330°. What holding entry procedure should be used?

• AParallel entry.
• BTeardrop entry.
• CDirect entry.
• DReverse entry.

What is the primary operational difference between a Decision Altitude (DA) and a Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA)?

• AAt DA (precision approach), a missed approach is initiated immediately upon reaching alti…
• BDA is expressed in MSL while MDA is expressed exclusively in AGL.
• CMDA allows descent 100 feet below published minimums without visual contact.
• DDA applies only to RNAV (GPS) LNAV approaches.

If the Glide Slope (GS) component of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) becomes inoperative during an approach, what approach procedure may the pilot execute?

• ARevert to the Localizer (LOC) non-precision approach using the published LOC MDA and step…
• BContinue the ILS approach using the reported altimeter setting as a substitute glide slop…
• CExecute an immediate missed approach regardless of visual contact with the runway.
• DSwitch the receiver to VOR mode and descend to the ILS Decision Altitude.

What full-scale deflection indicates on a standard VOR Course Deviation Indicator (CDI)?

• A10 degrees off course center (10° total across 5 dots = 2° per dot).
• B5 degrees off course center.
• C20 degrees off course center.
• D2.5 degrees off course center.

What is the full-scale CDI deflection sensitivity of a Localizer (LOC) signal compared to a VOR signal?

• ALocalizer full-scale deflection is approximately 2.5 degrees (4 times more sensitive than…
• BLocalizer full-scale deflection is 10 degrees, identical to VOR sensitivity.
• CLocalizer full-scale deflection is 0.5 degrees.
• DLocalizer full-scale deflection is 15 degrees.

What visual indication on an Attitude Indicator indicates a tumbling or failed vacuum gyro?

• AThe horizon bar tilts irregularly or remains fixed regardless of aircraft attitude, and a…
• BThe turn coordinator ball centers perfectly.
• CThe airspeed indicator reads zero.
• DThe altimeter hands spin continuously counterclockwise.