FAA FEP Knowledge Test — Flight Engineer Turboprop (Added Rating)

Under 14 CFR Part 63, what is the minimum age requirement for an applicant to be issued an FAA Flight Engineer Certificate?

• A18 years of age
• B21 years of age
• C23 years of age
• D25 years of age

What is the maximum duration of a Temporary Flight Engineer Certificate issued to a successful applicant pending receipt of the permanent certificate?

• A60 days
• B90 days
• C120 days
• D180 days

Within how many days must a certificated Flight Engineer notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch in writing of a change in permanent mailing address?

• A14 days
• B30 days
• C45 days
• D60 days

What minimum class of FAA Medical Certificate is required for a flight engineer to exercise certificate privileges in commercial air carrier operations?

• AFirst-Class Medical Certificate valid for 6 calendar months
• BSecond-Class Medical Certificate valid for 12 calendar months
• CThird-Class Medical Certificate valid for 24 calendar months
• DBasicMed qualification verified every 4 years

To qualify for a Flight Engineer Certificate under 14 CFR § 63.33 without completing an approved training course, an applicant must log at least how many total flight hours as a pilot or engineer?

• A250 hours
• B500 hours
• C1,000 hours
• D1,500 hours

A flight engineer holding a Turbojet rating who wishes to add a Turboprop rating (FEP) must meet which of the following requirements?

• AComplete a full 500-hour flight apprenticeship on turboprop aircraft only
• BPass the official FAA FEP Knowledge Test and pass a practical test on a turboprop aircraf…
• CRetake the basic Flight Engineer Basic (FEB) knowledge test along with a 100-hour dual in…
• DObtain an ATP certificate with a turboprop type rating prior to taking the FEP knowledge…

If an applicant fails an FAA Flight Engineer Knowledge Test, what requirement must be met before re-taking the examination within 30 days of the failure?

• AThe applicant must wait a mandatory 60 days regardless of additional training
• BThe applicant must present a written endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying…
• CThe applicant must pay a double examination fee and register directly with the FAA region…
• DThe applicant must complete 10 hours of flight simulator training logged by an air carrie…

Under 14 CFR § 63.12, refusal to submit to a chemical test for alcohol or drug concentration when requested by a law enforcement officer is grounds for:

• AA mandatory 14-day administrative suspension of the flight engineer certificate
• BDenial of an application for any certificate or rating, or suspension/revocation of any e…
• CA civil fine up to $1,000 payable to the Department of Transportation without certificate…
• DMandatory re-examination on the Flight Engineer Basic knowledge test within 90 days

What is the official FAA minimum passing score threshold for the Flight Engineer Turboprop (FEP) Knowledge Test?

• A65%
• B70%
• C75%
• D80%

Which three engine class ratings may be placed on an FAA Flight Engineer Certificate under 14 CFR § 63.41?

• ASingle-Engine, Multi-Engine, Turbopropeller
• BReciprocating engine powered, Turbopropeller powered, Turbojet powered
• CPiston, Turbofan, High-Bypass Jet
• DGroup I Propeller, Group II Jet, Group III Transport

During flight, when is a required Flight Engineer permitted to leave their assigned duty station under 14 CFR § 121.543?

• AAt any time during level cruise flight provided the autopilot is fully engaged
• BOnly when absence is necessary for the performance of duties in connection with the opera…
• CDuring flight below 10,000 feet MSL when pilot workload is low
• DWhenever requested by cabin crew to assist with passenger service

Under 14 CFR § 121.703, mechanical reliability reports regarding in-flight engine shutdowns or major propeller malfunctions must be submitted to the FAA within what timeframe?

• AWithin 24 hours of the occurrence
• BWithin 48 hours of the occurrence
• CWithin 72 hours of the occurrence
• DAt the end of the calendar month

Prior to takeoff on a commercial transport aircraft, the flight engineer must verify that passengers have been briefed on which essential safety item?

• AThe location and operation of emergency exits, seat belts, and oxygen equipment
• BThe specific fuel burn schedule and cruise altitude for the flight
• CThe weight and balance CG limits of the aircraft cargo compartments
• DThe electrical bus tie configuration during single-engine operation

A certificated flight engineer must present their airman certificate and medical certificate for inspection upon request from which authorized representative?

• AAn FAA Administrator representative, NTSB official, or law enforcement officer
• BOnly a Senior Captain or Chief Pilot of the air carrier
• COnly an FAA Principal Operations Inspector (POI) during an active audit
• DAny passenger holding a valid commercial ticket upon request

Under 14 CFR § 91.211, what are the flight crew supplemental oxygen rules for unpressurized flight at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,000 feet MSL up to 14,000 feet MSL?

• ASupplemental oxygen is not required unless altitude exceeds 14,000 feet MSL
• BRequired flight crewmembers must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen for that pa…
• CRequired flight crewmembers must continuously use oxygen for the entire time at those alt…
• DSupplemental oxygen is only required for flight engineers during engine-out operations

Under 14 CFR § 121.329, pressurized transport category aircraft operating above Flight Level 250 (FL250) must provide each flight crewmember at their duty station with:

• AA quick-donning type oxygen mask that can be placed on the face within 5 seconds with one…
• BA continuous flow rebreather bag mask connected to a portable 10-liter bottle
• CAn approved smoke hood with a self-contained chemical oxygen generator
• DA standard pressure-demand mask requiring a two-handed harness fitting

Which of the following areas of operation is explicitly tested during an FAA Flight Engineer practical test under 14 CFR § 63.37?

• APrimary flight maneuvering, including steep turns and instrument landing approaches
• BNormal and emergency procedures, engine power management, fuel management, and aircraft s…
• CAir traffic control radar vectoring procedures and instrument holding patterns
• DFlight instruction methodology and student pilot endorsement regulations

Under 14 CFR § 63.23, a special purpose flight engineer certificate issued to a foreign airman operating a US-registered aircraft terminates upon:

• ACompletion of 30 operational flight hours
• BExpiration of 24 calendar months or termination of the lease/employment contract
• CCompletion of 6 calendar months from date of issuance without exception
• DReaching 100 landings in international airspace

Under 14 CFR § 121.387, when is a certificated flight engineer required as a basic member of the flight crew?

• AOn all multi-engine turbine aircraft operating IFR in controlled airspace
• BWhenever the aircraft type certificate requires a flight engineer as a required crewmember
• COnly on international flights exceeding 8 hours in total duration
• DWhenever gross takeoff weight exceeds 12,500 pounds regardless of type certification

When completing an approved Flight Engineer training course under 14 CFR § 63.33(b), what maximum proportion of required flight training hours may be credited in an approved Level C or D flight simulator?

• AUp to 25%
• BUp to 50%
• CUp to 75%
• D100% of required flight training hours

Before initiating a flight under 14 CFR Part 121, what is the flight engineer's responsibility regarding the aircraft maintenance logbook?

• AFile a copy of the logbook directly with the FAA district office via electronic transmiss…
• BReview the logbook to ensure all required maintenance releases are signed and deferred it…
• CSign the airworthiness release as the primary certifying authority for airworthiness
• DPerform a 100-hour mechanical inspection on all engine controls

Under 14 CFR § 63.12a, a conviction for growing, manufacturing, or distributing controlled substances is grounds for:

• AMandatory re-issuance of the FE certificate under restricted supervisor status
• BDenial of an application for any certificate or rating for up to 1 year, or suspension/re…
• CA mandatory 30-day suspension followed by a written reprimand
• DNo action unless the offense occurred while actively performing FE flight duties

During the exterior preflight inspection of a turboprop transport aircraft, the flight engineer notices an unrecorded oil leak dripping from a propeller reduction gearbox seal. What action must the FE take?

• AWipe the oil clean and monitor the leak visually during taxi
• BEnter the discrepancy in the aircraft maintenance logbook and ensure it is evaluated by c…
• CApprove the flight provided oil pressure reads normal on start-up
• DAdd one quart of synthetic turbine oil and proceed with takeoff

Under 14 CFR § 121.437, to serve as a flight engineer in Part 121 operations, an individual must have logged how many hours of flight engineer time in the type aircraft within the preceding 6 calendar months?

• AAt least 10 hours
• BAt least 25 hours
• CAt least 50 hours
• DAt least 100 hours

Under 14 CFR § 63.31(d), an applicant for a Flight Engineer Certificate must demonstrate the ability to:

• ASpeak at least two ICAO official aviation languages fluently
• BRead, speak, write, and understand the English language
• CPass an international radio telephony exam in English and French
• DTranslate technical aircraft manuals from English to foreign languages

What is a defining structural difference between a free-turbine turboprop engine (e.g. Pratt & Whitney PT6) and a single-shaft fixed-turbine turboprop engine (e.g. Allison 501-D)?

• AA free-turbine engine has no reduction gearbox, driving the propeller directly from the c…
• BIn a free-turbine engine, the power turbine driving the propeller shaft is mechanically i…
• CA fixed-turbine engine uses hydraulic fluid instead of jet fuel for combustion
• DA free-turbine engine cannot reverse propeller blade pitch during ground operations

Why is a reduction gearbox (RGB) essential on all turboprop engines?

• ATo increase engine turbine RPM to match high-speed supersonic airflow
• BTo step down the high rotational speed of the power turbine to an efficient rotational sp…
• CTo convert DC electrical current into mechanical power for compressor rotation
• DTo automatically feather the propeller whenever engine oil temperature drops below 0°C

A turboprop power turbine rotates at 14,280 RPM under cruise power, driving a propeller through a reduction gearbox at 1,020 RPM. What is the reduction gear ratio of this gearbox?

• A10:1
• B12:1
• C14:1
• D16:1

During flight in the Alpha range, how is propeller blade pitch controlled on a constant-speed turboprop aircraft?

• ADirectly by the pilot moving the power lever connected mechanically to the blade pitch li…
• BAutomatically by the hydromechanical propeller governor adjusting blade pitch to maintain…
• CBy electrical solenoids that cycle blade pitch between 0° and -5° continuously
• DBy cabin pressurization bleed air pressure acting against return springs

Which statement accurately describes propeller operation in the Beta range during ground taxiing and reverse thrust operations?

• AThe propeller governor controls blade pitch while the power lever sets turbine temperature
• BThe power lever directly controls propeller blade angle from fine pitch down into negativ…
• CThe propeller is locked at a fixed 85° feather angle to minimize ground noise
• DEngine power is controlled automatically by the flight director via airspeed pressure sen…

When a turbopropeller is fully feathered following an engine failure, what approximate blade pitch angle does it assume relative to the plane of rotation?

• A0° (flat pitch)
• B-5° (negative reverse pitch)
• C+15° (flight fine pitch)
• D+85° to +90° (streamlined pitch)

A turboprop propeller operates across three distinct blade pitch zones: Beta Reverse (-5° to 0°), Beta Ground Idle (0° to +15°), and Alpha Flight (+15° to +86°). If the power lever is pulled into full Beta reverse, selecting -4° blade pitch, what physical effect occurs?

• AThe propeller produces maximum forward thrust at high RPM
• BThe propeller blade airflow creates negative vector thrust to rapidly decelerate the airc…
• CThe governor increases oil pressure to drive blades into full feather (+86°)
• DThe engine experiences an immediate compressor over-pressurization stall

What is the primary function of the Negative Torque System (NTS) on a fixed-shaft turboprop engine?

• ATo increase engine fuel flow when flying through heavy precipitation
• BTo automatically shift propeller blade pitch toward coarse pitch whenever the propeller a…
• CTo disengage the reduction gearbox from the propeller during taxiing
• DTo lock the cabin pressurization outflow valve during engine start

How does an Automatic Pitch Coarsening (APC) or Auto-feather system detect an engine failure during takeoff on a heavy turboprop?

• ABy monitoring exhaust gas temperature drop below 100°C
• BBy sensing a rapid drop in torquemeter oil pressure on the failed engine while remaining…
• CBy calculating airspeed decay from the pitot-static computer
• DBy measuring compressor rotor vibration levels via piezoelectric transducers

In a hydromechanical constant-speed governor during an underspeed condition, how do flyweights and speeder spring forces interact to restore target RPM?

• AFlyweight centrifugal force exceeds speeder spring force, moving pilot valve up to increa…
• BSpeeder spring force exceeds flyweight centrifugal force, moving pilot valve down to rele…
• CFlyweights lock against the governor housing, shutting off fuel flow to the engine
• DSpeeder spring tension drops to zero, causing the propeller to feather automatically

During an engine overspeed condition in flight, what sequence of governor actions occurs to control propeller RPM?

• ASpeeder spring force depresses the pilot valve, draining oil to decrease blade pitch
• BCentrifugal force tilts flyweights outward, lifting the pilot valve to supply high-pressu…
• CThe beta solenoid energizes, moving blades directly into negative pitch
• DThe torque limiter opens, bypassing fuel to the fuel return tank

What is the primary role of an auxiliary electric feathering pump on a turboprop engine?

• ATo supply high-pressure fuel to the main burner nozzles during high-altitude restarts
• BTo supply independent high-pressure oil to feather or unfeather the propeller when the en…
• CTo pump hydraulic fluid to the main landing gear actuators during manual extension
• DTo cool the reduction gearbox bearings after engine shutdown

How does a hydromechanical or phase-displacement torquemeter calculate and display engine power output to the flight engineer?

• ABy measuring fuel flow volume in gallons per minute
• BBy measuring torsional twist (deflection) of the power shaft or helical gear oil reaction…
• CBy calculating electrical current output from the starter-generator
• DBy measuring exhaust gas velocity at the tailpipe exit nozzle

A turboprop engine has a standard maximum torque rating of 4,000 lb-ft at ISA standard sea level (15°C). Above 15°C, the Fuel Control Unit (FCU) derates maximum allowable torque by 0.8% per °C rise. If the ambient Outside Air Temperature (OAT) on takeoff is 35°C, what is the maximum allowable torque setting?

• A3,360 lb-ft
• B3,520 lb-ft
• C3,680 lb-ft
• D3,840 lb-ft

Why must the flight engineer monitor Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT) or Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT) during engine startup and high-power climb?

• ATo ensure compressor air bleed pressure remains above 100 psi
• BTo prevent exceeding thermal limitations that cause turbine blade creep, structural oxida…
• CTo maintain proper DC electrical bus tie balancing
• DTo verify that synthetic engine oil viscosity remains below 5 centistokes

During a turboprop engine start, ITT rises rapidly toward the redline limit while engine RPM plateaus below idle speed. What condition is occurring, and what immediate action must the FE perform?

• AHung start; advance power lever to full forward
• BHot start; immediately move condition lever / fuel cutoff valve to OFF and continue motor…
• CNormal start; turn on fuel cross-feed pump
• DCompressor surge; select manual propeller feathering switch

What is the defining characteristic of a 'hung start' on a turboprop engine?

• AThe engine ignites, but fails to accelerate to self-sustaining idle RPM, maintaining a lo…
• BThe engine ignites and immediately accelerates past maximum rated takeoff RPM
• CThe starter motor fails to rotate when starter button is depressed
• DThe propeller rotates backwards while turbine acceleration remains normal

What is the function of automatic compressor bleed valves (surging valves) during engine startup and low RPM acceleration on axial-flow turboprop engines?

• ATo inject water-methanol into the combustion chamber to boost horsepower
• BTo dump excess air pressure from intermediate compressor stages to prevent compressor sta…
• CTo pressurize the aircraft hydraulic reservoir
• DTo route hot air into the cabin air conditioning system during ground idle

How do Variable Inlet Guide Vanes (VIGVs) on an axial compressor operate to maintain engine efficiency across varying RPM ranges?

• AThey remain fixed at a 90° perpendicular angle to intake airflow at all speeds
• BThey automatically pivot their angle of attack to direct incoming air into front compress…
• CThey close completely during high-altitude cruise to restrict air entering the engine
• DThey rotate continuously at 3,000 RPM powered by an auxiliary electric drive motor

What is the primary operational benefit of a propeller synchrophaser system on multi-engine turboprop aircraft?

• AIt automatically feathers all propellers simultaneously in an emergency
• BIt matches propeller RPM and maintains a precise angular phase relationship between prope…
• CIt increases maximum reverse thrust during short-field landings
• DIt transfers hydraulic fluid between left and right engine governors

What safety function do mechanical and solenoid-operated flight low-pitch stops perform on a turboprop propeller?

• AThey lock the propeller blades in full negative reverse pitch during takeoff roll
• BThey prevent propeller blades from flattening below minimum safe flight pitch in flight i…
• CThey prevent starter rotation until engine oil temperature reaches 40°C
• DThey disconnect the reduction gearbox if propeller overspeed exceeds 120%

What role does the Weight-on-Wheels (WOW) squat switch play in turboprop propeller control systems?

• AIt automatically turns off engine anti-icing upon touchdown
• BIt prevents the power levers from moving into the ground Beta and reverse pitch range whi…
• CIt shuts down the auxiliary power unit (APU) upon main gear compression
• DIt increases cabin pressure differential during landing roll

How does an unfeathering accumulator assist in restarting a feathered turboprop engine in flight?

• AIt supplies high-voltage electrical current to restart the ignition coils
• BIt stores oil under gas pressure during engine operation and releases it to drive propell…
• CIt injects compressed nitrogen into the fuel control unit to prime fuel lines
• DIt rotates the starter-generator through a mechanical clutch mechanism