FAA FEJ Knowledge Test — Flight Engineer Turbojet (Added Rating)

Under 14 CFR Part 63, what is the minimum age requirement for an applicant to be issued a Flight Engineer Certificate?

• A18 years
• B21 years
• C23 years
• D25 years

Which of the following represents a valid Class Rating placed on an FAA Flight Engineer Certificate under 14 CFR Part 63?

• ATurbojet powered
• BMultiengine land
• CTransport category
• DHeavy jet aircraft

What minimum class of FAA medical certificate must a Flight Engineer hold while exercising the privileges of their Flight Engineer Certificate under Part 121?

• AFirst-class medical certificate
• BSecond-class medical certificate
• CThird-class medical certificate
• DBasicMed qualification

To maintain recent flight experience currency under 14 CFR 63.33, how many hours of flight engineer time must a flight engineer log within the preceding 6 calendar months?

• A25 hours
• B50 hours
• C100 hours
• D150 hours

Unless surrendered, suspended, or revoked, an FAA Flight Engineer Certificate is issued with what duration?

• A24 calendar months
• B60 calendar months
• CWithout specific expiration date
• DValid only while a 1st Class Medical is active

A temporary Flight Engineer Certificate issued upon successful completion of a practical test is valid for a maximum period of how many days?

• A60 days
• B90 days
• C120 days
• D180 days

If a holder of a Flight Engineer Certificate changes their permanent mailing address, within how many days must they notify the FAA in writing?

• A10 days
• B30 days
• C60 days
• D90 days

Upon request by an authorized FAA representative or NTSB investigator, when must a Flight Engineer present their airman certificate for inspection?

• AWithin 7 business days
• BWithin 24 hours
• CImmediately upon reasonable request
• DPrior to the next scheduled flight departure

A certificated Flight Engineer holding a Turbopropeller rating who wishes to add a Turbojet rating must complete which of the following?

• APass the FEJ Knowledge Test and practical test for the turbojet class rating
• BComplete 100 hours of dual flight instruction in a turbojet aircraft without written exam
• CLog 50 landings in a turbojet aircraft under supervision of a pilot in command
• DSubmit an application endorsed by an airline Director of Maintenance

An applicant who fails the FEJ Knowledge Test may reapply for the test after satisfying which condition?

• AWaiting 30 days OR presenting an endorsement from a certificated instructor showing addit…
• BWaiting a mandatory 60 calendar days regardless of instruction received
• CCompleting a 10-hour ground school course certified by the FAA Administrator
• DPaying a penalty fee to the testing center within 14 days

Under 14 CFR Section 91.17 and Part 63, what is the minimum time that must elapse between consuming alcohol and performing duties as a Flight Engineer?

• A4 hours
• B8 hours
• C12 hours
• D24 hours

Under 14 CFR Part 121 flag operations, what is the maximum total flight time a Flight Engineer may log in any 12 consecutive calendar months?

• A800 hours
• B1,000 hours
• C1,200 hours
• D1,400 hours

Before taking the practical test for a Flight Engineer Certificate or rating, an applicant must have their logbook or training record endorsed by whom?

• AAn FAA Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE)
• BAn authorized Flight Engineer Instructor certifying completion of required training
• CThe Chief Pilot of a Part 121 air carrier
• DAn FAA Aviation Safety Inspector

Under 14 CFR Part 121.543, during flight operations, when must the Flight Engineer remain at the flight engineer control station?

• AOnly during takeoff and landing
• BAt all times during flight, unless absence is necessary in performing duties or for physi…
• COnly above FL180
• DAt the discretion of the Pilot in Command during cruise

Under 14 CFR Part 121.333, in a pressurized transport category turbojet aircraft operated above flight level 250 (FL250), flight crewmembers must have accessible supplemental oxygen available for not less than how long?

• A10 minutes
• B15 minutes
• CA continuous supply for each flight crewmember at their duty station
• D30 minutes at 10,000 ft cabin altitude equivalent

If a Flight Engineer holds only a 'Turbopropeller powered' class rating, what is their regulatory status regarding serving as a Flight Engineer on a Boeing 727 (Turbojet)?

• AThey may serve as FE provided they complete a 5-hour airline differences training course
• BThey may serve as FE under the direct supervision of a type-rated pilot in command
• CThey cannot serve as FE on a turbojet aircraft without holding a 'Turbojet powered' class…
• DThey may serve as FE if they hold a Commercial Pilot Certificate with Multiengine Instrum…

Under 14 CFR Part 63, a Flight Engineer may log flight engineer time only under what condition?

• AWhen occupying the FE station and performing the duties of a flight engineer
• BWhenever riding as a deadhead crewmember on a company aircraft
• CWhenever acting as a required pilot monitoring on the flight deck
• DWhen performing preflight inspections prior to engine start

Prior to flight, the Flight Engineer is responsible for verifying aircraft airworthiness and system status by reviewing which document?

• AThe Dispatch Release and Aircraft Flight Log / Maintenance Records
• BThe Passenger Manifest and Baggage Weight Receipts
• CThe ATC Flight Plan and En Route IFR Charts
• DThe Air Carrier Certificate and Operations Specifications

Under 14 CFR Section 91.3 and Part 121, during an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the flight crew may take which action?

• ADeviate from any rule in 14 CFR Part 91 or Part 121 to the extent required to meet that e…
• BDeviate from rules only after receiving prior oral clearance from Air Traffic Control
• CDeviate only from speed restrictions below 10,000 feet
• DAlter system operations only if authorized by company maintenance control

Before departing on a Part 121 flight, what signature must be verified in the aircraft maintenance logbook regarding corrective action taken for a previously reported system discrepancy?

• AA signature and certificate number of an appropriately certificated mechanic or repairman
• BThe signature of the lead gate agent
• CThe signature of the Chief Operating Officer of the air carrier
• DThe signature of the FAA Principal Maintenance Inspector (PMI)

For a 45-year-old Flight Engineer operating in Part 121 service, a Second-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of the last day of which month?

• A6th calendar month after the month of the examination date
• B12th calendar month after the month of the examination date
• C24th calendar month after the month of the examination date
• D36th calendar month after the month of the examination date

Under 49 U.S.C. 44709 and 14 CFR Part 63, if the FAA Administrator has reason to question a Flight Engineer's competence, what action may the FAA require?

• AReexamination of all or part of the flight engineer's knowledge and practical skills
• BImmediate permanent revocation without right of appeal
• CA mandatory 500-hour period of flight crew suspension
• DA retake of the private pilot written examination

Under 14 CFR Part 121, when is a certificated Flight Engineer mandatory as part of the minimum flight crew complement?

• AOn all twin-engine turbofan aircraft regardless of weight
• BWhen specified by the aircraft type certificate or for multiengine aircraft certificated…
• COnly during international oceanic flights exceeding 4 hours
• DOnly when carrying hazardous cargo

When an aircraft system component is inoperative, under what document may the aircraft be dispatched with specified limitations?

• AMinimum Equipment List (MEL)
• BConfiguration Deviation List (CDL) only
• CMaster Airworthiness Directive (MAD)
• DStandard Operating Procedures (SOP) Manual

If an FAA order revoking or suspending a Flight Engineer Certificate becomes effective, what must the certificate holder do?

• ASurrender the certificate to the FAA upon demand
• BRetain the certificate until the next medical examination
• CMail the certificate to the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
• DKeep the certificate on file at their employer's chief pilot office

In an axial-flow turbojet compressor, how is pressure rise achieved through a single stage comprising a rotor and a stator?

• AThe rotor accelerates air to increase kinetic energy, and the stator decelerates air in e…
• BThe rotor compresses air centripetally against the outer casing, while the stator expands…
• CThe rotor decreases air velocity to build pressure, while the stator increases airflow ve…
• DThe rotor and stator both decrease static pressure while doubling total pressure

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) indicated on the Flight Engineer panel is defined as the ratio of which two pressures?

• ATurbine discharge pressure (P7 or Pt7) to compressor inlet pressure (P2 or Pt2)
• BCompressor discharge pressure (P4) to ambient static pressure (P0)
• CCombustion chamber pressure (P3) to turbine inlet pressure (P5)
• DFan discharge pressure to exhaust nozzle static pressure

What is the primary function of Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs) and transient compressor bleed valves in high-pressure axial compressors?

• ATo prevent compressor stall and surge during acceleration, deceleration, and off-design R…
• BTo increase maximum turbine inlet temperature during high-altitude cruise
• CTo regulate oil flow to the engine main bearing seals
• DTo increase fan bypass airflow during reverse thrust operation

Which set of flight deck indications strongly indicates an active compressor surge on a turbojet engine?

• ARapid rise in EGT, fluctuating EPR and N1/N2 RPM, loud popping/banging sounds, and struct…
• BDrop in EGT, steady increase in EPR, and smooth rise in fuel flow
• CHigh oil pressure, low oil temperature, and steady N1 speed
• DDecrease in cabin altitude rate of climb with normal fuel flow

What happens to Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) EGT when the Flight Engineer opens the APU bleed air valve to supply engine start air?

• AEGT increases significantly due to increased mechanical load on the APU turbine
• BEGT drops to zero because pneumatic pressure is released
• CEGT remains unchanged because the load compressor operates at constant temperature
• DAPU RPM decreases by 50% to prevent over-temperature

A turbojet aircraft has a standard baseline Takeoff EPR of 1.92 at sea level ISA (15°C). The current airport pressure altitude is 2,000 feet and OAT is +30°C (ISA + 15°C). If the performance chart specifies an EPR reduction of 0.02 for 2,000 ft altitude and 0.03 for OAT +30°C, what is the target Takeoff EPR?

• A1.87
• B1.89
• C1.90
• D1.94

During a ground start of a turbojet engine, if EGT rises rapidly toward the starting limit while N2 RPM stabilizes below idle, what condition is occurring and what immediate action is required?

• AHot start; immediately move the fuel start lever to OFF and continue motoring the engine…
• BHung start; increase fuel flow by advancing the thrust lever to FULL
• CNormal start progression; monitor for 60 seconds before aborting
• DStarter re-engagement fault; turn off all boost pumps

In a dual-spool turbofan engine (N1 low-pressure spool and N2 high-pressure spool), how are the two spools mechanically connected?

• AThey are concentric shafts that are mechanically independent and rotate at different spee…
• BThey are locked together via a planetary reduction gearbox
• CThey are connected by a hydraulic fluid coupling drive
• DThe N1 spool drives the N2 spool via an accessory drive belt

If a Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) system loses its primary EPR sensor input, into what control mode will the engine control switch?

• AN1 alternate / unrated control mode
• BManual mechanical override mode
• CHydraulic speed governor mode
• DAutomatic engine shutdown mode

What safety interlock prevents deployment of thrust reversers in flight on a commercial turbojet aircraft?

• AMechanical and electrical squat-switch (air/ground sensing) interlocks and flight deck le…
• BEngine oil pressure switches that block hydraulic fluid above 10,000 ft
• CBarometric pressure switches tied to the pitot-static system
• DAutomatic disengagement of the engine igniter plugs

Engine cowl anti-ice thermal protection relies on bleed air extracted from which section of the engine?

• AHigh-pressure or intermediate-pressure compressor bleed ports
• BTurbine exhaust nozzle duct
• CFan bypass air duct downstream of the fan frame
• DCombustion chamber outer bypass jacket

At ISA conditions (15°C), a turbofan engine requires 94.5% N1 for takeoff. The performance manual specifies an N1 reduction of 1.2% N1 for every 5°C increase in ambient temperature above ISA. If the OAT is 30°C, what is the corrected target Takeoff N1?

• A90.9% N1
• B92.1% N1
• C93.3% N1
• D95.7% N1

Which condition will cause an automatic in-flight protective shutdown of an Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?

• AAPU overspeed, low oil pressure, APU fire signal, or high EGT
• BOpening of the main cabin entry door
• CSelecting wing anti-ice to ON
• DTurning on the galley oven electrical load

What is the primary function of an Active Clearance Control (ACC) system on modern turbojet/turbofan engines?

• ATo direct cool fan or compressor air onto the turbine casing to control blade tip clearan…
• BTo clear ice from the compressor inlet guide vanes during flight in icing conditions
• CTo flush residual fuel from the fuel nozzles during engine shutdown
• DTo adjust main landing gear door clearances during retraction

If an engine oil scavenge filter becomes clogged during flight, what safety mechanism ensures continued oil flow to the engine bearings?

• AA filter bypass valve opens to allow unmapped oil to continue circulating
• BThe secondary electric oil pump turns on automatically
• COil flow is diverted to the APU oil reservoir
• DThe engine automatically shuts down after 3 minutes

In a can-annular combustion section, how is flame propagated between individual burner cans during engine starting?

• AThrough interconnecting flame propagation tubes (cross-over tubes)
• BEach individual burner can contains its own continuous spark igniter plug
• CFuel vapors migrate backward into the compressor diffuser to ignite adjacent cans
• DHigh-voltage arc discharge across the turbine inlet guide vanes

What is the operational behavior of the High-Stage Bleed Valve (HSBV) in a pneumatic system during low engine thrust settings?

• AIt opens to supply adequate pneumatic pressure when low-stage compressor pressure is insu…
• BIt closes completely to prevent compressor overspeed
• CIt modulates to dump cabin air overboard
• DIt routes exhaust gas into the air conditioning packs

Under which operational flight conditions should the Flight Engineer verify that engine Continuous Ignition is selected ON?

• ATakeoff, landing, heavy turbulence, and flight in severe precipitation or icing conditions
• BHigh-altitude cruise in clear air above FL310 only
• CDuring engine start purging on the ground only
• DOnly when engine oil pressure drops below 30 psi

How are high-pressure turbine blades protected from extreme temperatures exceeding the melting point of their alloy metal?

• AInternal air passages pass HP compressor bleed air through the blades for convection, fil…
• BHigh-pressure hydraulic fluid is circulated internally through hollow blade roots
• CFuel is sprayed directly onto the trailing edge of the turbine blades
• DThe turbine assembly is enclosed in a liquid nitrogen jacket

A three-engine turbojet aircraft burns an average of 3,800 pounds of fuel per hour per engine during cruise. What is the total fuel consumed by all three engines during a cruise flight of 2 hours and 15 minutes?

• A25,650 lbs
• B17,100 lbs
• C22,800 lbs
• D28,500 lbs

Why do subsonic transport turbojet engines utilize a convergent exhaust nozzle profile?

• ATo accelerate exhaust gas velocity up to Speed of Sound (Mach 1.0) at the nozzle exit thr…
• BTo decelerate exhaust gases to subsonic speeds before exiting the tailpipe
• CTo increase exhaust gas static pressure above turbine inlet pressure
• DTo prevent thrust reverser deployment at high Mach numbers

In a dual-channel FADEC engine control computer, how do Channel A and Channel B operate together during normal engine run?

• AOne channel actively controls the engine while the other channel operates in standby mode…
• BChannel A controls fuel flow while Channel B controls thrust reversers exclusively
• CBoth channels command fuel metering valves simultaneously with equal hydraulic authority
• DChannel A operates on ground power and Channel B operates in flight

If a thrust reverser door unlocks uncommanded in flight, what automatic protective feature initiates on modern transport aircraft?

• AAuto-stow system applies hydraulic pressure to command the reverser sleeve closed and ret…
• BThe engine automatically executes an immediate high-pressure fuel shutoff
• CThe APU automatically starts to supply hydraulic backup pressure
• DThe flight deck ejects the reverser cowl door overboard