FAA CCP Knowledge Test — Commercial Pilot Airplane Canadian Conversion

Under 14 CFR Part 119 and FAA Advisory Circular 120-12A, what key element differentiates 'common carriage' from 'private carriage'?

• AA holding out of willingness to transport persons or property from place to place for com…
• BWhether the flight is conducted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR) or Instrument Flight Rule…
• CThe maximum certificated takeoff weight of the aircraft being operated
• DWhether the pilot holds a First-Class or Second-Class FAA Medical Certificate

According to 14 CFR §119.1(e), which of the following operations may a commercial pilot conduct for compensation or hire without an air carrier or commercial operator certificate under Part 119?

• ANon-stop sightseeing flights conducted within a 25-nautical-mile radius of the departure…
• BScheduled passenger shuttle flights between two airports located 40 nautical miles apart
• COn-demand air taxi charter flights carrying passengers in a light twin-engine airplane
• DCargo transport flights for five separate corporate clients conducted on an ad-hoc schedu…

If a commercial pilot certificate applicant holds a Commercial Pilot Airplane rating but does not hold an Instrument Rating (Airplane), what limitation is placed on their commercial pilot certificate under 14 CFR §61.133(b)?

• AThe carriage of passengers for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 nautical mil…
• BThe pilot may not act as pilot-in-command of any aircraft carrying passengers for hire un…
• CThe pilot is restricted to flying within 25 nautical miles of the departure airport durin…
• DThe pilot may only fly single-engine piston aircraft with a maximum gross weight under 12…

A 38-year-old commercial pilot receives a Second-Class FAA Medical Certificate on March 15, 2026. For the purpose of exercising commercial pilot privileges, when does this medical certificate expire?

• AMarch 31, 2027
• BMarch 15, 2027
• CMarch 31, 2028
• DMarch 31, 2031

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers for hire, 14 CFR §61.57 requires the pilot to have made at least three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days. If the flight is conducted in a tailwheel airplane at night, what specific landing requirement applies?

• AThree takeoffs and three landings to a full stop conducted during the period from 1 hour…
• BThree touch-and-go landings conducted between evening civil twilight and morning civil tw…
• CThree landings to a full stop conducted during official sunset to official sunrise in a t…
• DFive takeoffs and landings to a full stop conducted within the preceding 60 days in a tai…

How does 14 CFR §61.51 logging of Flight Time differ from Transport Canada CARs 101.01 Air Time when recording pilot logbook entries for FAA compliance?

• AFAA Flight Time is block-to-block time when the aircraft moves under its own power for th…
• BFAA Flight Time only counts time when the aircraft is airborne above 50 feet AGL, whereas…
• CFAA Flight Time requires an active flight plan filed with ATC, whereas TC Air Time is log…
• DFAA Flight Time and TC Air Time are legally identical definitions measured exclusively fr…

Which of the following aircraft inspection requirements applies to an airplane operated for compensation or hire under 14 CFR Part 91, but is NOT required for a Part 91 airplane flown solely for non-commercial personal use?

• AA 100-hour inspection under 14 CFR §91.409(b)
• BAn annual inspection under 14 CFR §91.409(a)
• CA transponder inspection every 24 calendar months under 14 CFR §91.413
• DAn Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) inspection every 12 calendar months under 14 CFR §…

Under 14 CFR §91.211, what is the minimum cabin pressure altitude at which the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that is of more than 30 minutes duration?

• A12,500 feet MSL
• B10,000 feet MSL
• C14,000 feet MSL
• D15,000 feet MSL

14 CFR §91.17 prohibits any person from acting or attempting to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within how many hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, and with what maximum concentration of alcohol in the blood?

• A8 hours after consumption and a blood alcohol concentration of less than 0.04 percent
• B12 hours after consumption and a blood alcohol concentration of 0.00 percent
• C24 hours after consumption and a blood alcohol concentration of less than 0.08 percent
• D6 hours after consumption and a blood alcohol concentration of less than 0.02 percent

Under 14 CFR §91.159, what VFR cruising altitude should a pilot select when operating an aircraft above 3,000 feet AGL up to 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 090 degrees?

• AAn odd-thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (e.g., 5,500 feet or 7,500 feet)
• BAn even-thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet (e.g., 4,500 feet or 6,500 feet)
• CAny odd-thousand foot MSL altitude based on magnetic heading
• DAn even-thousand foot MSL altitude based on true track

According to 14 CFR §91.103, for any flight not in the vicinity of an airport, or any IFR flight, what specific preflight action is required of the pilot-in-command?

• ABecome familiar with all available information concerning weather reports and forecasts,…
• BFile a flight plan directly with the nearest FSS or ATC facility and receive written clea…
• CPerform a complete physical inspection of the fuel system sampling jars and logbook recor…
• DCalculate aircraft weight and balance using FAA-certified digital dispatch software

Under 14 CFR §91.117(a), what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which any aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL within the United States unless otherwise authorized by ATC?

• A250 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
• B200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
• C230 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
• D280 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)

What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed for an aircraft operating in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area, or in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace under 14 CFR §91.117(c)?

• A200 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
• B250 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
• C180 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)
• D220 knots indicated airspeed (KIAS)

According to 14 CFR §91.303, aerobatic flight is prohibited under which of the following environmental conditions?

• AWhen flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles or when operating below 1,500 feet ab…
• BWhen flight visibility is less than 5 statute miles or when operating below 3,000 feet AGL
• CWithin 10 nautical miles of any public-use airport or military operating area
• DAt any altitude between sunset and sunrise regardless of visibility

Under NTSB Part 830, which of the following occurrences requires IMMEDIATE notification to the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office?

• AIn-flight fire or complete flight control system failure
• BA flat tire during taxi landing roll resulting in minor rim scraping
• CAn engine failure occurring on the ground during engine run-up test
• DA delay of more than 2 hours due to precautionary weather diversion

How does NTSB Part 830 define an 'aircraft accident'?

• AAn occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft between boarding with intent t…
• BAny unplanned occurrence during flight that causes financial loss exceeding $5,000 to the…
• CAny deviation from an ATC clearance resulting in a loss of separation of less than 500 fe…
• DAn incident involving minor engine cowling damage occurring during maintenance taxiing

Under 14 CFR §91.3, what is the ultimate authority and responsibility of the pilot-in-command during an in-flight emergency?

• AThe PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of t…
• BThe PIC must obtain verbal permission from ATC before executing any deviation from FAR re…
• CThe PIC is strictly bound by Part 91 rules regardless of emergency severity unless a writ…
• DThe PIC must immediately surrender flight control authority to the senior flight instruct…

If a pilot deviates from a rule under 14 CFR §91.3 during an emergency, when must that pilot submit a written report of the deviation to the FAA Administrator?

• AUpon request of the Administrator
• BWithin 48 hours automatically following landing
• CWithin 7 calendar days to the nearest FSDO
• DWithin 10 business days via certified mail

How do 14 CFR §91.207 rules for Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) testing in the United States compare to Transport Canada regulations?

• AIn the U.S., testing of analog 121.5 MHz ELTs is permitted only during the first 5 minute…
• BIn the U.S., ELTs may be tested airborne at any altitude provided ATC is notified on 121.…
• CIn the U.S., ELT batteries must be replaced after 6 months of calendar service regardless…
• DIn the U.S., digital 406 MHz ELTs must be operational tested by triggering an actual sate…

What are the minimum VFR fuel reserve requirements under 14 CFR §91.151 for a day VFR flight in a powered airplane?

• AEnough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising s…
• BEnough fuel to fly to the destination airport plus 45 minutes reserve at normal cruising…
• CEnough fuel to fly to the destination, execute a missed approach, and fly for 30 minutes…
• DEnough fuel to fly to the destination plus 20% total trip time reserve

What is the minimum fuel reserve required under 14 CFR §91.151 for an airplane operating under VFR at night?

• A45 minutes at normal cruising speed after reaching the first point of intended landing
• B30 minutes at normal cruising speed after reaching the first point of intended landing
• C60 minutes at holding speed after reaching the alternate airport
• D15 minutes at maximum continuous power after reaching destination

A commercial pilot is hired by a private aircraft owner to fly the owner's personal airplane on business trips, with the owner paying the pilot a monthly salary. Does this operation constitute common carriage under FAA regulations?

• ANo, because the pilot is acting as an employee flying the owner's aircraft without holdin…
• BYes, because any flight where a pilot receives compensation constitutes common carriage
• CYes, because corporate business transport requires a Part 121 air carrier certificate
• DNo, provided the pilot holds a Type Rating and First-Class Medical Certificate

Under 14 CFR §91.15, under what condition may a pilot-in-command allow an object to be dropped from an aircraft in flight?

• AIf reasonable precautions are taken to avoid creating a hazard to persons or property on…
• BOnly if prior written approval is granted by the FAA Flight Standards District Office (FS…
• COnly during agricultural crop dusting or skydiving operations conducted under Part 105
• DObjects may never be dropped from a U.S.-registered civil aircraft under any circumstances

Under 14 CFR §91.121, what altimeter setting must a pilot set when climbing through 18,000 feet MSL into Class A airspace within the contiguous United States?

• A29.92 inches of mercury ("Hg)
• BThe current local station altimeter setting reported along the route of flight
• CThe departure airport altimeter setting corrected for pressure altitude
• D1013.25 millibars only if operating on an international flight plan

According to 14 CFR §61.60, how many days does a holder of an FAA pilot certificate have to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of a change in permanent mailing address before certificate privileges may no longer be exercised?

• A30 days
• B60 days
• C90 days
• D14 days

If an aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 91 does NOT have an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL), how must an inoperative instrument or item of equipment be handled prior to flight under §91.213(d)?

• ADeactivated or removed, placarded 'Inoperative', and determined by the PIC not to constit…
• BLogged in the maintenance records and repaired within 10 calendar days by an A&P mechanic
• CApproved for flight via verbal authorization from the local FSDO duty officer
• DReplaced immediately before engine start with an FAA-certified spare part

When crossing the U.S. Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) from Canada into U.S. airspace under VFR, what is required under 14 CFR Part 99?

• AFiling a Defense VFR (DVFR) flight plan, operating a Radar Beacon Transponder with altitu…
• BFiling a standard VFR flight plan with Transport Canada and maintaining visual reference…
• CExecuting a mandatory 360-degree turn over the border entry fix until cleared by NORAD co…
• DSetting transponder code 1200 and monitoring 121.5 MHz without radio contact

Under 14 CFR §61.31(f), what is required for a commercial pilot to act as pilot-in-command of a 'high-performance airplane' (an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower)?

• AReceived ground and flight training from an authorized instructor and a one-time logbook…
• BPassing an official FAA high-performance written knowledge test at a PSI testing center
• CLogging at least 50 hours of PIC time in airplanes with engines over 200 horsepower
• DCompleting a practical flight test (checkride) with an FAA Designated Pilot Examiner (DPE)

How does 14 CFR §61.1 define a 'complex airplane' for pilot certification and endorsement requirements?

• AAn airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propelle…
• BAn airplane equipped with dual engine controls, pressurization, and digital glass cockpit…
• CAn airplane with a maximum certificated takeoff weight exceeding 12,500 pounds
• DAn airplane equipped with de-icing boots, radar, and multi-engine powerplants

Under 49 U.S.C. §44709 and 14 CFR §61.19, what authority does the FAA Administrator hold regarding re-examination of a certificated commercial pilot?

• AThe Administrator may re-examine any certificated pilot if reasonable safety concerns or…
• BThe Administrator may only re-examine a pilot after an aircraft accident involving total…
• CThe Administrator must obtain a court injunction before requesting a pilot re-examination
• DThe Administrator cannot re-examine pilots who converted from Transport Canada licences u…

Which of the following statements correctly describes U.S. Class A airspace requirements under 14 CFR §91.135?

• AClass A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600; operations must…
• BClass A airspace extends from 14,500 feet MSL up to 18,000 feet MSL; VFR flight is permit…
• CClass A airspace surrounds busy primary airports from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL; req…
• DClass A airspace allows VFR flight provided the pilot maintains clear of clouds and squaw…

What are the minimum VFR flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements for operating an airplane within U.S. Class B airspace?

• A3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
• B3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• C5 statute miles visibility, 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• D1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds during daylight hours

To enter U.S. Class B airspace under VFR, what specific ATC authorization is required?

• AThe pilot must receive an explicit ATC clearance stating 'Cleared to enter Class B airspa…
• BEstablishing two-way radio communication with ATC (e.g., ATC calling the aircraft call si…
• CFiling a VFR flight plan with FSS prior to takeoff automatically grants entry clearance
• DSetting the transponder to code 1200 grants implicit clearance upon crossing the outer bo…

A pilot calling ATC to enter Class C airspace transmits: 'Seattle Approach, Cessna 734SP, 15 miles south, 4,500 feet, inbound for landing.' ATC responds: 'Cessna 734SP, standby.' May the pilot enter the Class C airspace?

• AYes, because two-way radio communication has been established by ATC using the aircraft c…
• BNo, because the pilot must receive the explicit words 'Cleared to enter Class C airspace'
• CNo, because the controller instructed the pilot to 'standby'
• DYes, but only if the aircraft is operating under IFR

What are the basic VFR weather minimums for operating an airplane within U.S. Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• B3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• D1 statute mile visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal fr…

Unless otherwise specified in chart supplement publications, what is the normal vertical ceiling of U.S. Class D airspace above the airport elevation?

• A2,500 feet AGL
• B4,000 feet AGL
• C3,000 feet AGL
• D1,200 feet AGL

What are the VFR flight visibility and cloud distance requirements in Class E airspace at or above 10,000 feet MSL (and more than 1,200 feet AGL)?

• A5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• B3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal d…
• C3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds
• D5 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal d…

During daylight hours, what is the minimum VFR flight visibility and cloud clearance for an airplane operating in Class G airspace at 800 feet AGL?

• A1 statute mile flight visibility and clear of clouds
• B3 statute miles flight visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal
• C3 statute miles flight visibility and clear of clouds
• D1 statute mile flight visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal

On a U.S. VFR Sectional Aeronautical Chart, what does a solid magenta line surrounding a primary Class B airport at a radius of 30 nautical miles depict?

• AThe Mode C Veil, within which all aircraft must be equipped with an operational altitude-…
• BThe lateral boundary of Class C airspace outer area
• CA Military Operations Area (MOA) surface boundary
• DA Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA) mandatory radar contact zone

What does the Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) printed in large bold numbers inside each quadrangle on a U.S. VFR Sectional Chart represent?

• AThe elevation of the highest feature (terrain or obstacle) within the quadrangle, rounded…
• BThe minimum IFR vectoring altitude assigned by ATC for that sector
• CThe mandatory minimum VFR cruising altitude for twin-engine aircraft traversing the sector
• DThe highest airport runway elevation existing inside that specific quadrangle

What are the rules regarding VFR flight through a Military Operations Area (MOA) depicted on a Sectional Chart?

• AVFR pilots are not prohibited from entering a MOA, but should exercise extreme caution an…
• BVFR pilots must obtain prior ATC clearance before crossing the boundary of an active MOA
• CMOAs are restricted airspace where civil VFR flight is strictly illegal during daylight h…
• DVFR flight through a MOA is permitted only when squawking transponder code 7700

Under what condition may a pilot operating under VFR enter a Restricted Area depicted on a U.S. Sectional Chart?

• AOnly after receiving authorization from the controlling agency or using agency
• BAt any time provided the aircraft maintains an altitude above 2,000 feet AGL
• CWhenever the pilot files a standard VFR flight plan with Flight Service
• DRestricted Areas are open to all civil VFR aircraft on weekends and holidays without rest…

Regarding Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), what is the pilot-in-command's authority and requirement under AIM 4-3-11?

• AThe PIC has the final authority to accept or decline a LAHSO clearance, and student pilot…
• BThe PIC is legally obligated to accept any LAHSO clearance issued by an ATC tower control…
• CLAHSO clearances may only be accepted if the aircraft is operating under Instrument Fligh…
• DIf a LAHSO clearance is accepted, the pilot may overshoot the hold-short line by up to 20…

If an aircraft in flight experiences a total radio communications failure while approaching a towered airport, what does a steady red light signal from the control tower indicate?

• AGive way to other aircraft and continue circling
• BCleared to land immediately on any open runway
• CAirport unsafe, do not land
• DReturn for landing, cleared to enter traffic pattern

While taxiing an aircraft on the ground at a towered airport after radio failure, what does a flashing red light signal from the control tower direct the pilot to do?

• ATaxi clear of the runway in use
• BStop immediately
• CCleared to taxi onto runway for takeoff
• DReturn to starting point on airport

When landing behind a departing heavy jet aircraft on the same runway, where should a pilot plan to land to avoid wake turbulence?

• ALand prior to the departing aircraft's rotation point
• BLand well beyond the departing aircraft's rotation point
• CLand at the exact rotation point of the departing aircraft
• DExecute a low pass over the threshold and land past the runway midpoint

When departing behind a heavy jet aircraft that has just landed on the same runway, where should a pilot rotate to avoid wake turbulence?

• ARotate past the point where the landing heavy aircraft's nose wheel touched down
• BRotate prior to the landing aircraft's touchdown point and climb on runway centerline
• CRotate at the exact point where the heavy aircraft touched down
• DExecute an immediate turn toward the windward side of the runway prior to liftoff