FAA ASC Knowledge Test — Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine Airplane Canadian Conversion

Under the FAA-Transport Canada Implementation Procedures for Licensing (IPL), what prerequisite pilot licence must a Canadian pilot hold to convert to an FAA Single-Engine Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificate via the ASC Knowledge Test?

• ATransport Canada Airline Transport Pilot Licence - Aeroplane with single-engine rating.
• BTransport Canada Commercial Pilot Licence - Aeroplane with single-engine rating and instr…
• CTransport Canada Private Pilot Licence - Aeroplane with instrument rating and 500 hours t…
• DTransport Canada Recreational Pilot Permit with single-engine class rating.

According to 14 CFR Part 61.159, what is the minimum total flight time required for an applicant to be eligible for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate with an Airplane Single-Engine rating?

• A1,200 total hours
• B1,500 total hours
• C1,800 total hours
• D2,000 total hours

Under 14 CFR Part 61.57(b), to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night in a single-engine airplane, the pilot must have completed 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days during what specific timeframe?

• ABetween sunset and sunrise.
• BBetween the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
• CBetween the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise.
• DBetween 22:00 local time and 06:00 local time.

If a pilot's instrument currency under 14 CFR § 61.57(c) has lapsed by more than 6 calendar months past the initial 6-month currency window (total of 12 calendar months without instrument currency), how may instrument privileges be reestablished?

• ABy completing 6 instrument approaches and holding procedures with a safety pilot.
• BBy logging 10 hours of simulated instrument time in an approved flight simulation trainin…
• CBy completing a standard Flight Review under 14 CFR § 61.56.
• DBy completing an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) administered by an FAA inspector, des…

Under 14 CFR Part 91.3, in an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, what authority is granted to the Pilot in Command (PIC)?

• AThe PIC may deviate from any rule of Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergenc…
• BThe PIC may deviate from altitude rules only after receiving verbal concurrence from ATC.
• CThe PIC may deviate only from ATC clearances, but must strictly obey all Part 91 operatin…
• DThe PIC may deviate only if a second command pilot is on board to verify the emergency.

According to 14 CFR Part 91.17, a crewmember is prohibited from acting or attempting to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within how many hours after consuming alcohol, or with what maximum blood alcohol concentration (BAC)?

• AWithin 12 hours or with a BAC of 0.02% or higher.
• BWithin 8 hours or with a BAC of 0.04% or higher.
• CWithin 24 hours or with a BAC of 0.05% or higher.
• DWithin 48 hours or with a BAC of 0.08% or higher.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.211, at what cabin pressure altitude must the required minimum flight crew be provided with and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight that exceeds 30 minutes duration?

• AAbove 10,000 feet MSL up to 12,000 feet MSL.
• BAbove 14,000 feet MSL up to and including 15,000 feet MSL.
• CAbove 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
• DAbove 15,000 feet MSL continuously.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.211(a)(3), at what cabin pressure altitude must each occupant of an aircraft be provided with supplemental oxygen?

• AAbove 12,500 feet MSL.
• BAbove 14,000 feet MSL.
• CAbove 18,000 feet MSL.
• DAbove 15,000 feet MSL.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.167, what is the minimum fuel reserve required for a single-engine airplane operating under IFR in controlled airspace?

• AEnough fuel to fly to the destination, fly to the alternate airport (if required), and fl…
• BEnough fuel to fly to the destination, fly to the alternate airport (if required), and fl…
• CEnough fuel to fly to the destination and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at holding speed.
• DEnough fuel to fly to the destination, fly to the alternate airport, and fly for 60 minut…

Under 14 CFR Part 91.169, what are the standard weather minimums required at an alternate airport for a precision approach procedure at the estimated time of arrival (ETA)?

• A800-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
• B600-foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
• C1,000-foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility.
• D500-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.

Under 14 CFR Part 135.225, what is the standard takeoff visibility minimum for a single-engine airplane operating under Part 135 IFR, unless higher minimums or specific Ops Specs apply?

• A0 statute miles visibility.
• B1/2 statute mile visibility.
• C1 statute mile visibility (or 5,000 feet RVR).
• D2 statute miles visibility.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.211(a)(2), the required minimum flight crew must continuously use supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at cabin pressure altitudes above:

• A12,500 feet MSL.
• B15,000 feet MSL.
• C18,000 feet MSL.
• D14,000 feet MSL.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.183 and AIM recommendations, which of the following reports must be made to ATC at all times without a specific request when operating under IFR in non-radar contact?

• APassing each compulsory reporting point.
• BReaching a cruise altitude when maintaining VFR-on-top.
• CChanging true heading by more than 5 degrees.
• DPassing every 30 minutes of elapsed flight time.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.409(b), an aircraft operated for hire carrying passengers must undergo a 100-hour inspection. By how many hours may the 100-hour limit be exceeded, and what requirement applies to the excess time?

• AMay be exceeded by up to 5 hours, and the excess time is added to the next 100-hour cycle.
• BMay be exceeded by up to 10 hours while en route to reach an inspection location, and the…
• CMay be exceeded by up to 10 hours with FSDO approval, and the next inspection is reset to…
• DMay not be exceeded under any circumstances.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.413, no person may use an ATC transponder unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with Part 43, Appendix F. This rule applies to:

• AIFR operations only.
• BClass B and C airspace operations only.
• CAll transponders operated in civil aircraft.
• DCommercial operations under Part 135 only.

According to 14 CFR Part 91.411, how often must the altimeter, altitude-reporting system, and static pressure system be tested and inspected for an aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace?

• AWithin the preceding 12 calendar months.
• BWithin the preceding 100 hours of flight time.
• CWithin the preceding 36 calendar months.
• DWithin the preceding 24 calendar months.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.207(c), emergency locator transmitter (ELT) batteries must be replaced or recharged when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour, or when:

• A50 percent of their useful life (or useful life charge) has expired.
• B24 calendar months have elapsed from the date of manufacture.
• CThe aircraft completes an annual inspection.
• DThe battery voltage drops below 12.0 volts.

Under 14 CFR Part 135.265(a), for single-pilot scheduled commercial operations, what is the maximum allowable flight time in any 24-consecutive-hour period?

• A6 hours
• B8 hours
• C10 hours
• D12 hours

Under 14 CFR Part 135.265(b), a single-pilot operator who assigns a pilot 8 hours of flight time during a 24-consecutive-hour period must provide at least how many hours of consecutive rest prior to the next flight assignment?

• A8 consecutive hours
• B9 consecutive hours
• C10 consecutive hours
• D12 consecutive hours

Under 14 CFR Part 135.163, what redundant power system requirement applies to single-engine aircraft carrying passengers under IFR in Part 135 operations?

• ADual engine-driven vacuum pumps.
• BDual engine-driven alternators connected to a single bus system.
• CAn auxiliary power unit (APU) capable of restarting the engine in flight.
• DTwo independent electrical power generating sources, or one generator and a standby batte…

Under 14 CFR Part 135.219, no pilot may take off an aircraft under IFR unless weather reports or forecasts indicate that weather at the destination airport will be at or above authorized landing minimums at what time?

• AAt the estimated time of arrival (ETA).
• BAt the time of departure.
• CFrom 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
• DFor a window of 2 hours following departure.

Under Part 135 Ops Spec C055 (Derived Alternate Minimums), for an airport with AT LEAST ONE operational navigation facility providing a straight-in non-precision approach procedure, what values are added to the published landing minimums to determine alternate minimums?

• AAdd 200 feet to MDA/DA and 1/2 statute mile to landing visibility.
• BAdd 400 feet to MDA/DA and 1 statute mile to landing visibility.
• CAdd 300 feet to MDA/DA and 3/4 statute mile to landing visibility.
• DAdd 600 feet to MDA/DA and 2 statute miles to landing visibility.

Under NTSB Part 830.5, which of the following occurrences requires immediate notification to the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office?

• AAn in-flight alternator failure resulting in complete electrical load shedding.
• BA tire blowout during takeoff rollout resulting in a minor taxiway excursion.
• CAn in-flight flight control system failure or malfunction.
• DA cracked cylinder head discovered during a routine 100-hour inspection.

Under NTSB Part 830.15, the operator of an aircraft involved in an aircraft accident must file a formal written report with the NTSB within how many days after the accident?

• A5 days
• B7 days
• C14 days
• D10 days

Under 14 CFR Part 91.119(b), what is the minimum safe altitude permitted over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement?

• A1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the air…
• B500 feet above the surface.
• C1,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 5 miles.
• D2,000 feet AGL over the entire congested area.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.117, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when operating an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, and what is the limit underlying Class B airspace?

• A250 knots below 10,000 feet MSL; 250 knots underlying Class B airspace.
• B250 knots below 10,000 feet MSL; 200 knots underlying Class B airspace.
• C200 knots below 10,000 feet MSL; 180 knots underlying Class B airspace.
• D300 knots below 10,000 feet MSL; 250 knots underlying Class B airspace.

Under 14 CFR Part 91.205(b), which instrument is explicitly required for VFR day flight in civil aircraft with a standard airworthiness certificate?

• AGyroscopic attitude indicator
• BVertical speed indicator
• CMagnetic direction indicator (compass)
• DVHF omnirange receiver (VOR)

Under 14 CFR Part 91.213(d), if an inoperative instrument is NOT required by Part 91.205, an AD, or the aircraft's Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL), how must it be handled prior to flight without a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)?

• AIt must be repaired by a certified A&P mechanic before takeoff.
• BThe pilot may fly without action as long as the item is logged in the aircraft journey lo…
• CA special flight permit must be obtained from the FAA FSDO for every flight.
• DIt must be deactivated or removed, and placarded 'Inoperative'.

Under 14 CFR Part 135.167, when operating a single-engine aircraft carrying passengers for hire over water beyond gliding distance to shore, what equipment must be provided for each occupant?

• AAn approved life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light.
• BA fully equipped 10-person inflatable life raft with pyrotechnic signals.
• CAn approved immersion suit and satellite EPIRB beacon.
• DA auxiliary oxygen mask and flotation seat cushion.

Under 14 CFR Part 61.23, an FAA First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a pilot who has reached their 40th birthday expires for operations requiring an Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) Certificate at the end of the last day of the:

• A12th month after the month of the date of examination.
• B6th month after the month of the date of examination.
• C24th month after the month of the date of examination.
• D60th month after the month of the date of examination.

Class A airspace in the contiguous United States extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to FL600. What altimeter setting procedure is mandatory when climbing through 18,000 feet MSL?

• AMaintain the local station pressure altimeter setting reported by the nearest ATC facilit…
• BSet the altimeter to 30.00 inches of mercury standard pressure.
• CSet the altimeter to 29.92 inches of mercury (1013.2 hPa).
• DSet the altimeter to zero field elevation (QFE).

What minimum flight visibility and cloud clearance are required for VFR aircraft operations within Class B airspace?

• A3 statute miles visibility and 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal fr…
• B5 statute miles visibility and 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizon…
• C1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds.
• D3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds.

What ATC communication requirement must be satisfied prior to entering Class C airspace under VFR?

• ATwo-way radio communication must be established with ATC (ATC must respond using the airc…
• BThe pilot must receive an explicit clearance stating 'Cleared to enter Class C airspace'.
• CThe pilot must file an IFR flight plan at least 30 minutes prior to entry.
• DThe aircraft must receive a discrete transponder code and hold outside the boundary.

What are the standard lateral dimensions and vertical ceiling of Class D airspace unless otherwise depicted on aeronautical charts?

• AA 5 NM radius from the surface up to 3,000 feet AGL.
• BA 4 NM radius from the surface extending up to and including 2,500 feet AGL above the air…
• CA 10 NM radius from the surface up to 4,000 feet MSL.
• DA 4 NM inner core and 10 NM outer shelf up to 4,000 feet AGL.

What are the VFR weather minimums for aircraft operating in Class E airspace AT OR ABOVE 10,000 feet MSL (and below 18,000 feet MSL)?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from…
• B3 statute miles visibility; clear of clouds.
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal…
• D5 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal from…

What are the night VFR flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

• A1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds.
• B3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds.
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal.
• D3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

What are the minimum conditions required to obtain a Special VFR (SVFR) clearance at night within Class D surface airspace under 14 CFR § 91.157?

• A1 statute mile flight visibility, clear of clouds, and the pilot and aircraft must be ins…
• B3 statute miles flight visibility, clear of clouds, and an ATC transponder.
• C1/2 statute mile flight visibility and 500 feet ceiling.
• DSpecial VFR is strictly prohibited at night in all Class D airspace.

On US Low Altitude Enroute Charts, Victor airways (e.g. V12) extend from 1,200 feet AGL up to but not including:

• A14,000 feet MSL
• B18,000 feet MSL (FL180)
• C24,000 feet MSL (FL240)
• DFL450

When operating under IFR in a non-radar environment, which list correctly includes the required elements of a standard ATC position report in order according to AIM 5-3-2?

• AIdentification, Position, Time, Altitude, Flight Plan Type, Fuel Remaining.
• BCallsign, Airspeed, Heading, Altitude, Weather Remarks.
• CIdentification, Position, Time, Altitude/Flight Level, ETA and Name of Next Reporting Fix…
• DAircraft Type, Departure Point, Current Fix, Cruising Altitude, Destination.

Under 14 CFR § 91.185(c)(1), if two-way radio communication failure occurs in IMC, what order of priority must a pilot follow for selecting the ROUTE to fly?

• AAssigned, Direct, Expected, Filed
• BFiled, Assigned, Vectored, Direct
• CExpected, Assigned, Filed, Direct
• DAssigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed (AVE-F)

Under 14 CFR § 91.185(c)(2), if two-way radio failure occurs in IMC, what altitude should be maintained for each segment of the flight?

• AThe highest of: Minimum altitude for IFR (MEA), Expected altitude, or Assigned altitude.
• BThe lowest of: Minimum IFR altitude, Expected altitude, or Assigned altitude.
• CAlways maintain the filed cruise altitude regardless of MEA.
• DClimb immediately to FL180 to remain in radar contact.

When departing an uncontrolled airport on an IFR clearance containing a 'clearance void time', what action must the pilot take if the aircraft is not airborne by the void time?

• ADepart immediately under VFR and request IFR pickup in the air.
• BAdvise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of your intentions.
• CProceed with takeoff as long as runway conditions remain clear.
• DRe-file the flight plan with a new tail number.

When ATC issues a clearance stating 'Cruise 6,000 feet', what specific privileges and restrictions apply to the pilot?

• AThe pilot must maintain exactly 6,000 feet MSL until clearing the controlled airspace.
• BThe pilot may climb to any altitude up to 10,000 feet without further clearance.
• CThe pilot is authorized to fly at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to 6,000…
• DThe clearance applies only under VFR conditions.

On a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) chart associated with an RNAV (GPS) instrument approach, what obstacle clearance is guaranteed within a TAA sector?

• A500 feet obstacle clearance within 10 NM of the airfield boundary.
• B1,500 feet obstacle clearance within 25 NM of the primary VOR.
• C2,000 feet obstacle clearance within the entire Class E surface area.
• D1,000 feet obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in mountainous areas) within 30 NM of the Initi…

When ATC issues a 'Descend Via (STAR Name)' clearance to an IFR flight, what is the pilot required to do?

• ANavigate laterally along the STAR and descend in accordance with all published altitude a…
• BDescend immediately to the lowest published altitude on the STAR chart at maximum rate of…
• CMaintain altitude until passing the final fix, then descend visually.
• DDescend to 2,000 feet AGL and wait for radar vectors.

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) are published for instrument runways to ensure obstacle clearance during departure. When departing an airport under IFR without ATC radar vectors, when should a pilot fly an ODP?

• AOnly when specifically instructed to fly the ODP by ATC in the clearance.
• BWhenever an ODP is published for the departure runway and visual obstacle avoidance canno…
• COnly during night IFR operations.
• DOnly if the aircraft gross weight exceeds 12,500 lbs.

An Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) requires a minimum climb gradient of 300 feet per nautical mile (ft/NM) up to 5,000 feet MSL. If your single-engine airplane maintains a groundspeed of 120 knots during the climb, what is the minimum required rate of climb in feet per minute (FPM)?

• A450 FPM
• B500 FPM
• C600 FPM
• D720 FPM

An IFR Non-Precision Approach has a Height Above Touchdown (HAT) of 450 feet. Using the standard rule-of-thumb formula (Distance in NM = HAT / 300), where is the Visual Descent Point (VDP) located prior to the runway threshold?

• A1.0 NM from threshold
• B1.2 NM from threshold
• C2.0 NM from threshold
• D1.5 NM from threshold