FAA AFG Knowledge Test — Flight Instructor Glider (Added Rating)

According to 14 CFR § 61.183(e) and § 61.191, an applicant applying for a Flight Instructor Certificate with a Glider rating who already holds an active Flight Instructor Certificate in another category is:

• AExempt from taking the Fundamentals of Instructing (FOI) knowledge test
• BRequired to retake the Fundamentals of Instructing (FOI) knowledge test within 24 calenda…
• CExempt from taking both the FOI and the AFG aviation knowledge tests
• DRequired to log at least 50 hours of dual flight instruction given in a powered aircraft

Under 14 CFR § 61.189, how long must a certificated flight instructor retain records of student solo flight endorsements and practical test endorsements?

• AAt least 3 years
• BAt least 2 years
• CAt least 5 years
• DIndefinitely

Pursuant to 14 CFR § 61.195(a), a certificated flight instructor may not conduct more than how many hours of flight training in any 24-consecutive-hour period?

• A8 hours
• B6 hours
• C10 hours
• D12 hours

Before endorsing a student pilot logbook for solo flight in a glider, 14 CFR § 61.87 requires the flight instructor to administer a presolo knowledge test. The test must cover which of the following?

• AApplicable sections of Part 61 and 91, airspace rules, and flight characteristics/limitat…
• BCommercial pilot privileges, high-altitude wave operations, and multi-engine soaring proc…
• CInstrument flight rules (IFR), holding patterns, and MLS approach procedures
• DAerobatic pitch maneuvers, spin entries from inverted flight, and jet engine thrust calcu…

What is the minimum age required under 14 CFR § 61.83 for a student pilot certificate for the operation of a glider?

• A14 years of age
• B16 years of age
• C15 years of age
• D17 years of age

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, 14 CFR § 61.69 requires a pilot to have logged at least how many hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type being used?

• A100 hours PIC time
• B50 hours PIC time
• C20 hours PIC time
• D10 hours PIC time

Under 14 CFR § 91.309(a)(3), if a weak link is installed at the glider end of the towline, it must have a breaking strength of not less than what percentage, and not more than what percentage, of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider?

• A80% minimum and 200% maximum
• B50% minimum and 150% maximum
• C100% minimum and 250% maximum
• D75% minimum and 125% maximum

CALCULATION: A glider has a maximum certificated operating weight of 1,350 lbs. Under 14 CFR § 91.309, what is the allowable range for the breaking strength of a weak link installed at the glider release mechanism?

• A1,080 lbs to 2,700 lbs
• B900 lbs to 2,250 lbs
• C1,350 lbs to 3,375 lbs
• D675 lbs to 2,025 lbs

Under 14 CFR § 91.309(a)(2), what towline release mechanism operational requirement applies to both the towplane and the glider during aero-tow operations?

• ABoth aircraft must be equipped with a quick-release mechanism that functions properly and…
• BOnly the towplane is required to have a pilot-operated quick release mechanism
• COnly the glider is required to have an operational quick release mechanism
• DRelease mechanisms are optional if a weak link with a 500-lb breaking strength is used

According to 14 CFR § 91.113(d)(2), which of the following aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft, rotorcraft, and airships?

• AA glider
• BAn airship
• CA powered parachute
• DAn airplane on a multi-mile instrument final approach

Under 14 CFR § 61.197, what must a flight instructor have done in order to exercise the privileges of a flight instructor certificate?

• ASatisfied one of the listed recent experience requirements within the preceding 24 calend…
• BLogged 50 hours of PIC flight time in any aircraft within the preceding 12 months
• CAttended 3 FAA Safety Team (FAASTeam) seminars without taking an evaluation test
• DSubmitted a written affidavit confirming 100 hours of ground instruction given

A flight instructor has gone 8 calendar months past the last month of their recent experience period. Under 14 CFR § 61.199, how may that instructor reinstate flight instructor privileges?

• ABy filing an application and passing a flight instructor practical test for one of the ra…
• BBy completing an approved flight instructor refresher course, which reinstates privileges…
• CBy applying for an administrative extension at the local FSDO
• DBy submitting logbook proof of 20 hours of instruction given before the recent experience…

Under 14 CFR § 61.56, to act as pilot-in-command of a glider, a flight instructor must have accomplished a Flight Review within the preceding:

• A24 calendar months
• B12 calendar months
• C36 calendar months
• D6 calendar months

To endorse a student pilot for solo cross-country flight in a glider under 14 CFR § 61.93, the flight instructor must ensure the student has received flight training in:

• ALandout field selection, cross-country navigation by aeronautical charts, atmospheric soa…
• BInstrument landing system (ILS) approaches, DME arcs, and transponder radar vectoring
• CNight VFR cross-country navigation and runway edge lighting systems
• DCommercial charter cargo operations and multi-glider formation flying

According to 14 CFR § 91.211(a)(1), supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flight crew of an unpressurized aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above:

• A12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL for that part of the flight at those…
• B10,000 feet MSL for any duration of flight
• C14,000 feet MSL for any duration of flight, but only during night operations
• D18,000 feet MSL only

Under 14 CFR § 91.211(a)(3), at cabin pressure altitudes above what level must each occupant of an unpressurized aircraft (including glider passengers) be provided with supplemental oxygen?

• AAbove 15,000 feet MSL
• BAbove 14,000 feet MSL
• CAbove 12,500 feet MSL
• DAbove 18,000 feet MSL

14 CFR § 91.303 prohibits aerobatic flight in a glider under which of the following circumstances?

• ABelow an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface, over any congested area, or within Cla…
• BAbove 5,000 feet MSL over open water
• CWithin Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL when visibility exceeds 5 SM
• DDuring thermal soaring flight when banking in excess of 30 degrees

According to 14 CFR § 91.307(c), approved parachutes must be worn by each occupant when intentionally executing any maneuver that exceeds a bank angle of:

• A60 degrees, or a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon
• B45 degrees, or a nose-up attitude of 20 degrees
• C75 degrees, or a nose-down attitude of 45 degrees
• D30 degrees, or a nose-up attitude of 15 degrees

Under 14 CFR § 61.23(c)(1)(ii), a flight instructor exercising privileges of a Flight Instructor Certificate with a Glider rating is required to hold what class of FAA medical certificate?

• ANo FAA medical certificate is required; the instructor must certify having no known medic…
• BAt least a Third-Class FAA medical certificate
• CAt least a Second-Class FAA medical certificate
• DBasicMed qualification with a valid state driver's license only

To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a Glider rating under 14 CFR § 61.129(f), an applicant who does not hold a powered aircraft rating must log at least:

• A25 hours of flight time in gliders and 100 flights as pilot-in-command
• B50 hours of flight time in gliders and 20 flights as PIC
• C200 hours of total flight time including 50 hours in gliders
• D10 hours of flight time in gliders and 5 solo launches

Under 14 CFR § 61.31(j), a pilot may not act as PIC of a glider using ground-tow (winch or auto-tow) launch procedures unless they have received ground and flight training and earned a logbook endorsement for:

• AGround-tow launch procedures specifically from an authorized flight instructor
• BAero-tow launch procedures only
• CSelf-launch motorglider engine operations only
• DTurbine-powered launch winch mechanics

According to 14 CFR § 91.215 and § 91.225, gliders that were not originally certificated with an engine-driven electrical system are exempt from mandatory Transponder and ADS-B Out requirements when operating:

• AOutside Class A airspace, below the ceiling of Class B or Class C airspace, and below 10,…
• BInside Class A airspace during high-altitude wave soaring without prior ATC clearance
• CWithin Class B surface boundaries at any altitude without ATC contact
• DIn Restricted Airspace during active military live-fire operations

Under 14 CFR § 91.155, what are the basic VFR weather minimums for a glider operating in Class G airspace at 800 feet AGL during daylight hours?

• A1 statute mile flight visibility and clear of clouds
• B3 statute miles flight visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizonta…
• C5 statute miles flight visibility and 1,000 feet cloud clearance
• D2 statute miles flight visibility and clear of clouds

Under 14 CFR § 91.155, what are the basic VFR flight visibility and cloud clearance requirements for a glider flying in Class E airspace at 6,500 feet MSL?

• A3 statute miles visibility; 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal f…
• B1 statute mile visibility and clear of clouds
• C5 statute miles visibility; 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 statute mile horizo…
• D3 statute miles visibility and clear of clouds

To satisfy passenger-carrying recency requirements in a glider under 14 CFR § 61.57(a), a pilot must have performed at least how many launches and landings as pilot-in-command within the preceding 90 days?

• A3 launches and landings in a glider
• B5 launches and landings in a glider
• C10 launches and landings in any aircraft category
• D1 launch and landing in the preceding 30 days

Under 14 CFR § 61.87(n), a student pilot may not fly solo unless an authorized instructor has endorsed the logbook for that make and model within the preceding:

• A90 calendar days
• B60 calendar days
• C120 calendar days
• D30 calendar days

Under 14 CFR § 91.309(a)(4), what must the pilot in command of the towing aircraft do before conducting a towing operation inside the surface area of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport?

• ANotify the control tower, or the FAA flight service station serving that airspace if no t…
• BFile a written towing operations plan with the responsible Flight Standards office at lea…
• CObtain a letter of agreement from the airport operator and carry it aboard the towing air…
• DNothing beyond the pre-launch briefing; the notification requirement applies only in Clas…

CALCULATION: A glider has a maximum certificated operating weight of 1,000 lbs. If a weak link installed at the towplane end of the towline has a breaking strength of 2,200 lbs (220% of max weight), what additional safety condition must be met under 14 CFR § 91.309(a)(3)(ii)?

• AThe setup is illegal: the towplane-end link may be no more than 25 percent stronger than…
• BIt is legal as long as a glider-end safety link anywhere in the 800 lb to 2,000 lb range…
• CIt is legal provided the towline is shortened to less than 50 feet
• DIt is legal provided the tow pilot holds a type rating in the towplane

Under 14 CFR § 61.39(a)(6), to be eligible for a practical test for a glider rating, an applicant must have received an endorsement from an authorized instructor within what preceding timeframe?

• A2 calendar months
• B6 calendar months
• C30 calendar days
• D12 calendar months

How does 14 CFR § 91.119 apply to a glider that is thermalling low or setting up an off-field landing?

• AThe § 91.119(b) and (c) minimums bind gliders in cruise, but § 91.119(a) excepts altitude…
• BGliders may operate below the § 91.119 minimums whenever the operation creates no hazard…
• CGliders must maintain 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle at all times, including the lan…
• DGliders may overfly open-air assemblies of people at 200 ft AGL while thermalling

In the Fundamentals of Instructing (FOI), when a student pilot blames turbulence or faulty flight controls for their poor landing performance, which psychological defense mechanism is being exhibited?

• ARationalization
• BProjection
• CDisplacement
• DReaction Formation

Which Law of Learning states that things learned first create a strong, almost unshakable impression, emphasizing why flight instructors must teach maneuvers correctly on the very first try?

• ALaw of Primacy
• BLaw of Effect
• CLaw of Intensity
• DLaw of Recency

What are the four basic levels of learning in order of increasing complexity as defined in the Aviation Instructor's Handbook?

• ARote, Understanding, Application, Correlation
• BObservation, Execution, Mastery, Synthesis
• CMemorization, Comprehension, Evaluation, Analysis
• DReadiness, Exercise, Effect, Primacy

On a glider polar performance curve plotting forward airspeed on the horizontal axis against sink rate on the vertical axis, how is the best glide speed (L/D max) determined in calm air?

• ABy drawing a line from the graph origin (0,0) tangent to the polar curve
• BBy identifying the lowest point (apex) of the polar curve
• CBy taking the average of stall speed and Vne
• DBy finding the speed where sink rate equals 10 knots

On a glider polar curve, what flight condition corresponds to the point of minimum vertical sink rate (Vms)?

• AThe speed that provides the maximum time aloft per unit altitude lost
• BThe speed that provides maximum horizontal distance over ground in a 20-knot headwind
• CThe speed where parasite drag is three times induced drag
• DThe maximum allowable aero-tow speed

CALCULATION: A glider has a maximum lift-to-drag ratio (L/D max) of 40:1 at a forward airspeed of 50 knots. In calm air, what is the glider's rate of sink at this speed in feet per minute (fpm)?

• A127 fpm
• B152 fpm
• C95 fpm
• D180 fpm

CALCULATION: A training glider flying at 60 knots airspeed has a measured lift-to-drag ratio of 30:1. What is its rate of sink in feet per minute?

• A203 fpm
• B250 fpm
• C160 fpm
• D300 fpm

According to MacCready speed-to-fly theory, when flying through sink (descending air mass) between thermals, how should the pilot adjust cruise airspeed?

• AIncrease airspeed above calm-air best glide speed to minimize time spent in sinking air
• BDecrease airspeed to minimum sink speed (Vms) to float through the sink slowly
• CMaintain exact stall speed to reduce parasite drag
• DPull up immediately into a steep 60-degree banked turn

CALCULATION: A glider's polar curve indicates L/D max occurs at 48 knots in calm air. Flying into a 20-knot headwind, using the standard rule of thumb tangent approximation (increasing speed by approximately half the headwind component), what speed should the pilot fly for best glide over ground?

• A58 knots
• B38 knots
• C68 knots
• D48 knots

How does setting a higher MacCready ring setting (e.g., setting 4 knots vs 1 knot) affect the recommended inter-thermal cruise speed?

• AIt instructs the pilot to fly faster between thermals because stronger lift is expected i…
• BIt instructs the pilot to fly slower to save height
• CIt has no effect on cruise speed; it only changes thermalling bank angle
• DIt requires lowering water ballast immediately

When water ballast is added to a glider, how does the increased gross weight affect the glider's polar curve and performance?

• AThe entire polar curve shifts down and to the right; L/D max speed increases, minimum sin…
• BThe maximum L/D ratio increases significantly at all airspeeds
• CThe best glide speed decreases while minimum sink rate decreases
• DThe stall speed decreases by 20%

CALCULATION: A glider has an empty gross weight of 750 lbs and a best glide speed of 50 knots. Water ballast weighing 158 lbs is added, increasing gross weight to 908 lbs. What is the new best glide speed ( new V_BG = old V_BG * sqrt(W_new / W_old))?

• A55 knots
• B60 knots
• C45 knots
• D50 knots

What is the relationship between bank angle and stall speed in a level, coordinated turn in a glider?

• AStall speed increases proportionally to the square root of the load factor (1 / sqrt(cos…
• BStall speed decreases as bank angle increases due to centrifugal force
• CStall speed remains constant regardless of bank angle if rudder is kept centered
• DStall speed increases linearly by 10 knots for every 5 degrees of bank

What is the correct standard spin recovery control sequence (PARE) adapted for glider flight instruction?

• APower/Spoilers idle, Ailerons neutral, Full opposite Rudder, Elevator forward smooth pres…
• BFull opposing Aileron, Elevator back, Rudder neutral, Spoilers fully open
• CElevator full back, Rudder in direction of spin, Ailerons neutral
• DSpoilers fully open, Ailerons in direction of spin, Elevator neutral

Why is a bank angle of 30 to 45 degrees generally recommended when circling in strong thermal lift?

• AIt balances turning radius reduction (keeping glider inside strong thermal core) against…
• BIt achieves minimum sink speed (Vms) regardless of thermal diameter
• CIt eliminates adverse yaw completely without using rudder
• DIt allows maximum water ballast dump rate

What causes severe adverse yaw in high-aspect-ratio gliders during roll entry into a turn?

• AThe downward-deflected wingtip aileron generates significantly more induced drag than the…
• BExcessive rudder surface area creating reverse roll torque
• CElevator trim spring tension pulling the tail sideways
• DSpoiler asymmetric deployment during roll entry

What is the aerodynamic significance of Design Maneuvering Speed (Va) in glider flight operations?

• AIt is the maximum speed at which full, abrupt control deflection will cause an aerodynami…
• BIt is the speed at which spoilers must be opened to prevent wing flutter
• CIt is the exact speed where parasite drag is zero
• DIt is the minimum launch speed for winch operations

Why does Never Exceed Speed (Vne) indicated airspeed limit decrease at high density altitudes for certain high-performance gliders?

• ABecause aeroelastic wing flutter depends on True Airspeed (TAS), which is higher than Ind…
• BBecause lower air density causes elevator control cables to contract
• CBecause lift increases exponentially at high altitudes
• DBecause thermal strength decreases above 10,000 feet