FAA ACM Knowledge Test — Airline Transport Pilot Multiengine Airplane Canadian Conversion

Under 14 CFR Part 121, what is the domestic IFR fuel reserve requirement for a turbojet aircraft landing at its destination when no alternate airport is required?

• AFly to the airport of intended landing and thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising f…
• BFly to the airport of intended landing, then for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 fee…
• CFly to the airport of intended landing, plus 10 percent of the total time required for th…
• DFly to the airport of intended landing and thereafter for 2 hours at normal cruising fuel…

According to 14 CFR Part 91.117(a), what is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when operating an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL in US airspace, unless otherwise authorized by ATC?

• A250 knots IAS
• B200 knots IAS
• C230 knots IAS
• D280 knots IAS

Under 14 CFR Part 121.619 (the '1-2-3 Rule'), when is a Part 121 domestic flight REQUIRED to list at least one destination alternate airport on the dispatch release?

• AIf weather reports or forecasts indicate that for at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after…
• BIf weather reports or forecasts indicate that for 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, th…
• CWhenever the destination airport has only one operational runway or non-precision approac…
• DIf the flight duration exceeds 3 hours regardless of destination weather forecasts.

A Part 121 twin-engine transport category airplane departs an airport where weather is below landing minimums. According to 14 CFR § 121.617, what is the maximum distance a takeoff alternate airport can be located from the departure airport?

• ANot more than 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air wit…
• BNot more than 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air wi…
• CNot more than 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.
• DNot more than 200 nautical miles regardless of aircraft engine performance.

Under 14 CFR Part 117 Flight Time Limitations, what is the maximum flight time limit for an unaugmented flight crew consisting of two pilots scheduled between 0700 and 1259 table report time?

• A9 hours
• B8 hours
• C10 hours
• D12 hours

Under 14 CFR Part 91.211, when is the required minimum flight crew of an unpressurized aircraft required to continuously use supplemental oxygen?

• AAt cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL for…
• BContinuously at all cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL.
• CAt cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL for flight over 30 minutes, and continu…
• DContinuously at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL only.

Under 14 CFR § 121.533, who holds JOINT operational control responsibility for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a Part 121 domestic flight?

• AThe Pilot in Command (PIC) and the Aircraft Dispatcher.
• BThe Pilot in Command (PIC) and the Chief Pilot.
• CThe Aircraft Dispatcher and the Director of Operations only.
• DThe Chief Dispatcher and the FAA Principal Operations Inspector.

Under 14 CFR § 121.625, what must the weather reports or forecasts indicate before an airport may be listed as an alternate in a dispatch or flight release?

• AThat conditions at the alternate will be at or above the alternate weather minima specifi…
• BThat conditions at the alternate will be at or above basic VFR minimums for the entire pe…
• CThat conditions at the alternate will be at or above the published straight-in landing mi…
• DThat conditions at the alternate are forecast to improve by at least 500 feet and 1 statu…

Under 14 CFR § 91.211(b), what oxygen requirement applies to a pressurized airplane operating at flight altitudes above FL350 when one pilot leaves the flight deck controls?

• AThe remaining pilot at the controls must put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pi…
• BBoth pilots must request a descent to FL200 prior to one pilot leaving the flight deck.
• CThe remaining pilot may rely on the quick-donning mask exception and need not put a mask…
• DAn automated cabin pressure monitoring system must be activated, but no mask usage is req…

If a pilot's instrument currency has expired under 14 CFR § 61.57(c) and the subsequent 6-month grace period has also elapsed, how can the pilot re-establish instrument currency?

• APass an Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) given by an FAA inspector, authorized check ai…
• BComplete 6 instrument approaches and holding procedures in an aircraft with a safety pilo…
• CLog 10 hours of instrument flight time in actual IMC within the next 30 days.
• DPass an FAA written knowledge test on instrument procedures.

When Part 97 prescribes no takeoff minimums for the departure airport, what visibility does 14 CFR § 91.175(f) set for an aircraft having two engines or less operating under Part 121, 125, 129, or 135?

• A1 statute mile visibility (or RVR 5,000)
• B1/2 statute mile visibility (or RVR 2,400)
• C1/4 statute mile visibility (or RVR 1,600)
• D2 statute miles visibility and 1,000 foot ceiling

When deriving IFR alternate airport weather minimums using the standard Part 121 OpSpecs C055 table for an airport with TWO operational navigation facilities (providing straight-in approaches to different suitable runways), what adjustment is made to published approach minimums?

• AAdd 200 feet to the higher HAT/HAA of the two approaches used, and add 1/2 SM to the high…
• BAdd 400 feet to the HAT/HAA of the approach used, and add 1 SM to the landing visibility.
• CUse the published Category I landing minimums without any additive adjustments.
• DAdd 300 feet to the ceiling and 1 SM to visibility of the lowest approach.

Under FAA AIM 5-3-3, which of the following reports MUST be made to ATC at all times under IFR without a specific request?

• AWhen revising true airspeed by 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in t…
• BWhen passing every enroute intersection along a radar vector route.
• CUpon changing radio frequencies as instructed by ATC.
• DWhen fuel remaining reaches exactly 2 hours of flight time.

What is the repair category time limit for a Category B item listed in an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL) under 14 CFR Part 121/135?

• AMust be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days (72 hours), excluding the day of disc…
• BMust be repaired within 24 hours of discovery.
• CMust be repaired within 10 consecutive calendar days (240 hours), excluding the day of di…
• DMust be repaired within 120 consecutive calendar days (3,600 hours).

Under 14 CFR Part 91.17, what is the minimum required elapsed time between consuming alcohol and operating as a required flight crewmember on a civil aircraft in the US?

• A8 hours, and with a blood alcohol concentration of less than 0.04 percent.
• B12 hours, and with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.00 percent.
• C24 hours after any alcohol consumption regardless of blood level.
• D6 hours, provided no physical impairment is present.

To act as Pilot in Command carrying passengers at night under 14 CFR Part 61.57(b), what recency of experience must a pilot log within the preceding 90 days?

• AAt least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop between 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour…
• BAt least 3 night instrument approaches and 3 touch-and-go landings during night hours.
• CAt least 5 takeoffs and landings at night within the preceding 60 days.
• DAt least 1 night cross-country flight of more than 50 NM.

Under 14 CFR Part 1.1 and Part 121, how is an 'extended overwater operation' defined for flight safety equipment requirements?

• AAn operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the…
• BAn operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 100 nautical miles from lan…
• CAn operation over water beyond glide distance of land with one engine inoperative.
• DAn operation occurring more than 12 nautical miles offshore in territorial waters.

Under 14 CFR Part 117.25, what is the mandatory rest requirement a flight crewmember must receive immediately prior to commencing any Flight Duty Period (FDP)?

• AAt least 10 consecutive hours of rest, providing at least an 8 uninterrupted hour sleep o…
• BAt least 8 consecutive hours of rest, providing at least 6 hours of sleep opportunity.
• CAt least 12 consecutive hours of rest if the preceding duty exceeded 8 hours.
• DAt least 24 consecutive hours of rest within every 7-day period.

Under 14 CFR § 91.175, if a pilot on an ILS approach reaches DA and sees only the red terminating bars or red side row bars of the Approach Light System (ALS), what descent is permitted?

• AThe pilot may descend below DA/DH and continue the approach to a landing.
• BThe pilot may descend only to 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE).
• CThe pilot must immediately execute a missed approach because the threshold is not visible.
• DThe pilot may descend to 50 feet above runway threshold.

What is the validity period of a First-Class Medical Certificate for an Airline Transport Pilot exercising ATP privileges who is 40 years of age or older (14 CFR § 61.23)?

• A6 calendar months
• B12 calendar months
• C24 calendar months
• D36 calendar months

Under 14 CFR § 121.645, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbine-engine powered flag air carrier flight when an alternate airport is required?

• AFly to destination, plus 10% of total time enroute, plus fly to most distant alternate, p…
• BFly to destination, plus 45 minutes cruise fuel, plus fly to alternate airport.
• CFly to destination, plus 15% of total time enroute, plus 45 minutes holding.
• DFly to destination, plus 2 hours cruise fuel at normal consumption.

Under 14 CFR § 121.613, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft under IFR unless weather reports and forecasts indicate that weather conditions at the destination airport will be:

• AAt or above the authorized minimums at the estimated time of arrival (ETA).
• BAt least 1,000 feet above ceiling and 2 SM visibility above landing minimums at ETA.
• CAt or above landing minimums for 2 hours after departure.
• DAt VFR minimums at the time of departure.

Under 14 CFR § 91.173, what is required before operating an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR?

• AThe pilot must have filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.
• BThe pilot must have logged an IFR flight within the preceding 30 days.
• CThe aircraft must be equipped with Dual FMS and TCAS II.
• DThe aircraft must carry an operative weather radar and high-frequency radio.

Under 14 CFR § 121.441, what is the recurrent check frequency for a Part 121 Pilot in Command (PIC) to maintain proficiency?

• AA proficiency check (or simulator check) within the preceding 12 calendar months, and a l…
• BA proficiency check every 6 calendar months, and no line check requirement.
• CA proficiency check every 24 calendar months.
• DA flight review under FAR 61.56 every 12 calendar months.

Under the FAA-TC Implementation Procedures for Licensing (IPL) agreement, what prerequisite must a Canadian pilot fulfill prior to taking the FAA ACM Knowledge Test?

• AHold a valid Transport Canada Airline Transport Pilot Licence - Aeroplane (ATPL-A) with a…
• BLog at least 50 hours of night flight time in US airspace within the preceding year.
• CObtain a written endorsement from a US FAA Designated Pilot Examiner.
• DComplete a 40-hour FAA Part 142 ground school course.

Under 14 CFR § 135.105, when is an approved autopilot permitted to be used in lieu of a second-in-command (SIC) during passenger-carrying IFR operations?

• AWhen authorized by the operator's Ops Specs, the autopilot is fully operational, and the…
• BAutopilot is never permitted to replace a required SIC under Part 135 passenger operation…
• CProvided total flight distance does not exceed 100 nautical miles.
• DWhen daylight VFR conditions exist along the entire route.

What is the standard '6-6-HIT' instrument currency requirement under 14 CFR § 61.57(c) for a pilot to act as PIC under IFR?

• AWithin the preceding 6 calendar months: 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and t…
• BWithin the preceding 6 months: 6 hours of simulated instrument flight time and 3 landings.
• CWithin the preceding 12 calendar months: 6 instrument approaches and 1 IPC check.
• DWithin the preceding 60 days: 6 precision approaches to Category I minimums.

Under 14 CFR § 121.195, what is the landing distance limit for a turbine-engine powered transport category airplane dispatched to a destination airport?

• AThe airplane must be able to land and come to a full stop within 60 percent of the effect…
• BThe airplane must be able to stop within 70 percent of the effective runway length.
• CThe airplane must be able to stop within 80 percent of the effective runway length.
• DThe airplane landing distance is unconstrained provided dry runway braking action is repo…

According to 14 CFR § 91.117(c), what is the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when operating an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area or in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace?

• A200 knots IAS
• B250 knots IAS
• C230 knots IAS
• D180 knots IAS

A Part 121 air carrier operates a three-engine transport jet. Under 14 CFR § 121.617, what is the maximum permissible distance for a takeoff alternate airport?

• ANot more than 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air wi…
• BNot more than 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed with all engines…
• CNot more than 3 hours from the departure airport at long-range cruise speed.
• DNot more than 500 nautical miles.

What are the standard vertical limits of Class A airspace within the contiguous United States?

• AFrom 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 (60,000 feet pressure altitude).
• BFrom 14,500 feet MSL up to FL450.
• CFrom 18,000 feet AGL up to FL600.
• DFrom FL240 up to and including FL600.

What are the standard lateral and vertical boundaries of Class D airspace surrounding an airport with an operational control tower?

• ASurface to 2,500 feet AGL above airport elevation, extending laterally within a 4 NM radi…
• BSurface to 4,000 feet AGL, extending within a 10 NM radius outer circle.
• CSurface to 1,200 feet AGL, extending within a 5 NM radius.
• D1,000 feet AGL to 3,000 feet AGL within a 6 NM radius.

When entering a standard IFR holding pattern (right turns), what are the three standard holding entry sectors defined by FAA AIM 5-3-8?

• AParallel (110° sector), Teardrop (70° sector), and Direct (180° sector).
• BOffset (90° sector), Direct (180° sector), and Radial (90° sector).
• CProcedure Turn (120° sector), Teardrop (60° sector), and Direct (180° sector).
• DStandard (120° sector), Non-standard (120° sector), and Parallel (120° sector).

What is the maximum holding airspeed authorized for civil aircraft holding between 6,001 feet MSL and 14,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise published or cleared by ATC (AIM 5-3-8)?

• A230 knots IAS
• B200 knots IAS
• C265 knots IAS
• D175 knots IAS

What are the standard elements included in an ATC IFR Clearance in the sequence specified by the FAA CRAFT acronym?

• AClearance Limit, Route of flight, Altitude, Frequency (departure), Transponder code.
• BCallsign, Runway in use, Altimeter setting, Frequency, Time of departure.
• CClearance Limit, Reporting fix, Altitude, Fuel on board, Taxi route.
• DCourse, Radar vectors, Approach procedure, Transition fix, Transponder.

What Runway Visual Range (RVR) equivalent value corresponds to a visibility of 1/2 statute mile under FAA instrument approach procedures?

• ARVR 2,400 feet
• BRVR 1,600 feet
• CRVR 4,000 feet
• DRVR 5,000 feet

Under 14 CFR § 91.117(b), what is the speed limit for an aircraft operating at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class C or Class D airspace?

• A200 knots IAS
• B250 knots IAS
• C220 knots IAS
• D180 knots IAS

What environmental ceiling and visibility conditions trigger ATC protection of the Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ) on an ILS approach (AIM 1-1-9)?

• AWhen the reported ceiling is below 250 feet and/or visibility is less than 3/4 statute mi…
• BWhen ceiling is below 500 feet and visibility is less than 1 statute mile.
• CWhen ceiling is below 1,000 feet and visibility is less than 3 statute miles.
• DOnly during Category III autoland operations under RVR 600.

What is the key difference between a Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) and a Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA) published on an IFR enroute low altitude chart?

• AAn MEA assures acceptable VOR navigation signal coverage and obstacle clearance along the…
• BAn MEA provides 2,000 ft obstacle clearance; a MOCA provides 1,000 ft obstacle clearance.
• CA MOCA guarantees radar contact along the airway, while an MEA does not.
• DAn MEA is used only for RNAV routes, while a MOCA is used for ground-based VOR routes.

CALCULATION: An aircraft on an IFR arrival must descend from 12,000 feet MSL to 3,000 feet MSL over a distance of 30 nautical miles. If the groundspeed during descent is 180 knots, what rate of descent (in feet per minute) is required?

• A900 fpm
• B600 fpm
• C1,200 fpm
• D1,500 fpm

In US airspace, what transponder code should be selected immediately by a pilot experiencing a two-way radio communications failure under IFR (AIM 6-4-1)?

• ACode 7600
• BCode 7700
• CCode 7500
• DCode 7777

Under 14 CFR § 91.185, if an IFR flight loses two-way radio communications in IMC, what route order must the pilot fly?

• AAssigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed (AVE F).
• BFiled, Assigned, Direct, Vectors.
• CDirect to destination alternate regardless of clearance.
• DExpected, Assigned, Filed, Vectored.

What does a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA) icon on an FAA RNAV (GPS) approach chart replace?

• AReplaces the Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) chart icon and provides seamless transition fr…
• BReplaces the missed approach procedure profile view.
• CReplaces the airport sketch and touchdown zone elevation data.
• DReplaces the runway visual range (RVR) conversion table.

CALCULATION: A SID chart requires a minimum climb gradient of 360 feet per nautical mile up to 8,000 feet. If the aircraft climbs at a groundspeed of 150 knots, what minimum rate of climb (fpm) must be maintained?

• A900 fpm
• B720 fpm
• C1,080 fpm
• D600 fpm

What is the standard altitude range for Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace in the United States (AIM 4-6-1)?

• AFL290 up to and including FL410
• BFL180 up to and including FL450
• CFL240 up to and including FL600
• DFL330 up to and including FL490

What obstacle clearance is provided by an ATC Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA) in non-mountainous designated terrain areas (AIM 5-4-5)?

• A1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of the center of the vectoring sector.
• B2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 NM.
• C500 feet above the highest obstacle within 1 NM.
• D1,500 feet above airport elevation.

When conducting a non-precision instrument approach with a published Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), what operational constraint applies regarding altitude level-off?

• AThe pilot may descend to and fly at the MDA until reaching the Missed Approach Point (MAP…
• BThe pilot must execute a missed approach immediately upon reaching MDA regardless of dist…
• CThe pilot may momentarily dip 100 feet below MDA while searching for runway lights.
• DMDA is treated identically to a Decision Altitude (DA) and mandates an immediate climb at…