Punjab Emergency Service Rescue 1122 EMT Recruitment Test

What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations for a single-rescuer adult CPR?

• A15 compressions to 2 ventilations
• B30 compressions to 2 ventilations
• C5 compressions to 1 ventilation
• D15 compressions to 1 ventilation

What is the recommended compression depth for an adult patient during CPR?

• AAt least 1 inch (2.5 cm) but no more than 1.5 inches (4 cm)
• BAt least 1.5 inches (4 cm) but no more than 2 inches (5 cm)
• CAt least 2 inches (5 cm) but no more than 2.4 inches (6 cm)
• DAt least 2.5 inches (6 cm) but no more than 3 inches (7.5 cm)

What is the very first action an EMT should take upon finding an unresponsive patient on the road?

• AAssess the safety of the scene
• BCheck the patient's carotid pulse
• COpen the patient's airway using jaw-thrust
• DStart high-quality chest compressions

Which of the following describes the correct hand placement for performing chest compressions on an adult patient?

• AOn the upper half of the sternum
• BOn the xiphoid process at the tip of the breastbone
• COn the left side of the chest over the heart
• DOn the lower half of the sternum (breastbone)

What does the medical abbreviation AED stand for in emergency cardiac care?

• AAutomatic Emergency Defibrillator
• BAutomated External Defibrillator
• CAdvanced Electrical Defibrillator
• DAmbulatory External Device

What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute when performing CPR on a patient of any age?

• A60 to 80 compressions per minute
• B80 to 100 compressions per minute
• C100 to 120 compressions per minute
• D120 to 140 compressions per minute

What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer CPR on an infant?

• A15 compressions to 2 ventilations
• B30 compressions to 2 ventilations
• C15 compressions to 1 ventilation
• D30 compressions to 1 ventilation

Which of the following chest compression techniques is recommended for two-rescuer infant CPR?

• ATwo-finger technique
• BOne hand pressing the upper sternum near the throat
• CTwo-hand heel technique
• DTwo thumb-encircling hands technique

To prevent rescuer fatigue and maintain high-quality chest compressions, how often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?

• AEvery 1 minute (or after 2 cycles of CPR)
• BEvery 2 minutes (or after 5 cycles of CPR)
• CEvery 5 minutes (or after 10 cycles of CPR)
• DOnly when the active compressor explicitly asks to switch

While assessing a 9-month-old infant, you find the infant is unresponsive, has a brachial pulse of 55 beats/min, and shows signs of poor systemic perfusion. What is your next immediate action?

• AAdminister high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
• BPerform rescue breathing at a rate of 1 breath every 3 seconds
• CStart chest compressions at a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations
• DTransport the patient immediately without performing interventions

What is the first step you must perform immediately after an AED is turned on and present at the patient's side?

• AApply the AED pads to the patient's bare chest
• BPress the 'Shock' button to clear any electrical static
• CStand back and tell everyone to stand clear
• DWait for the AED to automatically analyze the rhythm

Which airway maneuver should an EMT use to open the airway of a trauma patient with a suspected cervical spine injury?

• AHead-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
• BHead-tilt/neck-lift maneuver
• CCrossed-finger airway maneuver
• DJaw-thrust maneuver

What is the correct technique for relieving a severe airway obstruction (choking) in a responsive, conscious infant?

• APerform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)
• BGive 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts
• CPerform a blind finger sweep inside the infant's mouth
• DUse a bag-valve-mask to deliver high-pressure breaths

What is the maximum amount of time an EMT should allow when interrupting chest compressions to check for a pulse during CPR?

• A5 seconds
• B8 seconds
• C10 seconds
• D15 seconds

When the AED is analyzing the patient's cardiac rhythm, what is the most critical action for the EMT to perform?

• AEnsure no one is touching the patient
• BDeliver active rescue breaths using a bag-valve-mask
• CMaintain manual stabilization of the head and neck
• DContinue performing rapid chest compressions

For an adult patient who has an advanced airway (e.g., endotracheal tube) placed during CPR, what is the recommended ventilation rate?

• A1 breath every 3 to 4 seconds (15 to 20 breaths per minute)
• B1 breath every 4 to 5 seconds (12 to 15 breaths per minute)
• C1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds (10 to 12 breaths per minute)
• D1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths per minute)

Why is it crucial to allow for complete chest recoil between chest compressions during CPR?

• AIt prevents rib fractures and chest wall trauma
• BIt helps the rescuer rest their arm muscles briefly
• CIt allows blood to flow back into the heart chambers (ventricular filling)
• DIt forces residual air out of the patient's lungs

Which of the following cardiac arrest rhythms is an AED programmed to identify and shock?

• AVentricular fibrillation (VF)
• BAsystole (flatline)
• CPulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
• DNormal Sinus Rhythm with no pulse

You are preparing to apply AED pads to a patient in cardiac arrest and notice a bulge under the skin on the upper right side of the chest, indicating a permanent pacemaker. What should you do?

• APlace the AED pad directly on top of the pacemaker bulge
• BDo not use the AED, as it will destroy the pacemaker
• CPlace the AED pad on the left side of the back instead
• DPlace the AED pad at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) away from the device bulge

What is the recommended compression depth when performing chest compressions on a child patient (from age 1 year to puberty)?

• AAt least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
• BAt least one third the chest diameter (about 2 inches or 5 cm)
• CAt least 2.4 inches (6 cm)
• DAt least 3 inches (7.5 cm)

What is the most effective initial method for controlling severe external bleeding from an extremity wound?

• AApplying direct pressure with a sterile dressing
• BApplying a tourniquet 2 inches below the wound
• CElevating the extremity above the level of the heart
• DPressing on the nearest proximal arterial pressure point

What is the primary medical purpose of splinting a fractured extremity in the pre-hospital setting?

• ATo force the fractured bones back into their original anatomical alignment
• BTo allow the patient to walk and bear weight on the injured limb
• CTo prevent bone fragments from moving and causing further soft tissue or nerve damage
• DTo speed up the healing process and promote rapid bone rejoining

What is the recommended immediate treatment for a minor first-degree thermal burn on a patient's arm?

• AApply a thick layer of oily butter or cooking oil
• BCool the burn area immediately with cool, clean water
• CApply ice cubes directly on the burn until it goes numb
• DPop any small blisters that form to release heat

Which of the following signs observed during chest inspection is most indicative of a life-threatening tension pneumothorax?

• ABilateral symmetrical chest expansion
• BActive bleeding from a puncture wound
• CParadoxical movement of a chest wall segment
• DTracheal deviation away from the injured side

How should an EMT immediately manage an open, sucking chest wound in the pre-hospital environment?

• AApply a sterile occlusive dressing taped on three sides
• BPack the open wound with sterile dry gauze rolls
• CSeal the wound completely with airtight plastic wrap taped on all four sides
• DLeave the wound open to allow blood to drain freely

Using the Rule of Nines, what percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA) is assigned to an adult's entire right upper extremity (arm)?

• A4.5%
• B18%
• C9%
• D1%

When applying a commercial tourniquet to control life-threatening bleeding from an extremity, where should it be placed?

• ADirectly over the active bleeding site
• B2 to 3 inches proximal to the wound, but not over a joint
• CDistal to the bleeding site as close to the fingers/toes as possible
• DDirectly over the joint immediately above the wound

When assessing a patient with a fractured limb, the EMT must check CSM. What does the abbreviation CSM stand for?

• AColor, Strength, Movement
• BCapillary refill, Sensation, Muscle tone
• CColdness, Swelling, Moisture
• DCirculation, Sensory, Motor

Which of the following injuries is the primary indication for the use of a traction splint in the field?

• AAn isolated, closed mid-shaft femur fracture
• BAn open tibia-fibula fracture with visible bone
• CA suspected pelvic fracture with internal bleeding
• DA dislocated knee with absent distal pulses

What is the first step an EMT should take when managing a trauma patient with a suspected spinal cord injury?

• AApply a rigid cervical collar immediately
• BRoll the patient onto a long backboard
• CManually stabilize the cervical spine in a neutral position
• DMeasure the patient's neck to size the collar

How is a burn classified if it presents with painful blisters, intense redness, and local swelling?

• AFirst-degree (superficial) burn
• BSecond-degree (partial-thickness) burn
• CThird-degree (full-thickness) burn
• DFourth-degree burn

Which of the following clinical findings is most characteristic of a basilar skull fracture?

• AA dilated pupil on the opposite side of the injury
• BActive bleeding from a superficial scalp laceration
• CDepressed skull bone felt during palpation
• DCerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaking from the nose or ears

What is the correct pre-hospital management for an abdominal evisceration injury (where organs are protruding through the wound)?

• ACover the protruding organs with moist, sterile dressings and an occlusive wrap
• BGently push the protruding organs back inside the abdominal cavity
• CCover the wound with dry, sterile gauze dressings and apply pressure
• DPour sterile saline directly onto the organs and leave them uncovered

What is the primary concern for a patient who has sustained severe facial burns and has singed nasal hairs?

• ADeveloping a secondary bacterial infection
• BSevere scarring and cosmetic disfigurement
• CAirway compromise due to inhalation injury
• DHypovolemic shock from fluid loss

What is the best method to stabilize a flail chest segment in a trauma patient with inadequate breathing?

• ATape a heavy sandbag tightly over the flail segment
• BPerform positive pressure ventilation using a bag-valve-mask (BVM)
• CSecure the patient's arm tightly across the injured side of the chest
• DInstruct the patient to hold their breath as long as possible

What is the appropriate action if severe external bleeding from an arm wound continues despite applying direct pressure and a pressure dressing?

• ARemove the soaked dressing and apply a fresh dry one
• BPerform immediate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
• CPack the wound tightly with sterile petroleum jelly strips
• DApply a commercial tourniquet proximal to the wound

Which of the following clinical signs constitute Beck's triad, indicating a life-threatening cardiac tamponade?

• AMuffled heart sounds, jugular venous distention (JVD), and hypotension
• BTracheal deviation, hyperresonance on percussion, and absent breath sounds
• CBradycardia, widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations
• DHypertension, bradycardia, and skin flushing

Which of the following clinical findings would help distinguish neurogenic shock from hypovolemic shock?

• AHypotension and tachycardia
• BCold, clammy skin and rapid breathing
• CBradycardia and warm, dry skin
• DFlat neck veins and altered mental status

What is the correct pre-hospital management for a patient with a large knife impaled in their thigh?

• APull the knife out immediately to assess vascular damage
• BPush the knife further in to seal the cut artery
• CWiggle the knife to see if it has fractured the femur
• DStabilize the knife in place with bulky sterile dressings

A trauma patient presents with cold, pale, and clammy skin, a rapid thready pulse, shallow breathing, and a blood pressure of 85/50 mmHg. What type of shock is this patient experiencing?

• ACardiogenic shock
• BHypovolemic shock
• CAnaphylactic shock
• DSeptic shock

What is the first components of the primary survey that an EMT must assess after ensuring scene safety?

• AAirway patency
• BQuality of breathing
• CCirculatory status and major bleeding
• DDisability and neurological status

What is the maximum possible score a patient can receive on the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

• A10
• B12
• C15
• D3

What is the normal resting respiratory rate range for a healthy adult patient?

• A8 to 12 breaths per minute
• B12 to 20 breaths per minute
• C20 to 30 breaths per minute
• D30 to 40 breaths per minute

On the AVPU level of consciousness scale, what does the letter 'P' stand for?

• APulse present
• BPupil reactivity
• CPatient placement
• DPainful stimulus