Cadastral Law Examination (Survey and Spatial New Zealand / CSLB)

Which combination best states the purpose of the Cadastral Survey Act 2002?

• AAccurate licensed surveys, competence, e-lodgement, and geodetic/control systems
• BTo make LINZ responsible for carrying out every cadastral survey
• CTo transfer all boundary-dispute jurisdiction from the courts to the Surveyor-General
• DTo regulate the fees charged by licensed cadastral surveyors

Under section 53 of the Cadastral Survey Act 2002, what is the surveyor's general right of entry?

• AA licensed cadastral surveyor may enter any building without consent whenever a boundary…
• BReasonable-time survey entry, with statutory notice and building-entry safeguards
• CA licensed cadastral surveyor may alter fences encountered during entry without the occup…
• DOnly the Surveyor-General may authorise entry onto private land

Which entity is responsible for making the Rules for Cadastral Survey under the Cadastral Survey Act 2002?

• AThe Minister for Land Information
• BThe Cadastral Surveyors Licensing Board (CSLB)
• CThe Surveyor-General
• DThe Chief Executive of Land Information New Zealand (LINZ)

Two Class A boundary points are 200 m apart. Under rule 27 and Table 2 of the Cadastral Survey Rules 2021, what is their maximum permitted horizontal uncertainty?

• A0.03 m
• B0.06 m
• C0.20 m
• D0.09 m

What is the maximum horizontal uncertainty for referencing a Class B boundary point to a non-boundary reference mark under rule 21 and Table 1 of the Cadastral Survey Rules 2021?

• A0.20 m
• B0.03 m
• C0.15 m
• D0.60 m

For Class A boundary points that must be referenced, what distance condition applies to the permanent reference marks under rule 32?

• AEach PRM must be within 50 m of every referenced point
• BWithin 150 m of a referenced boundary point
• COnly one PRM must be within 150 m of the parcel
• DEach PRM may be up to 500 m away

For Class B boundary points that must be referenced, what distance condition applies to the permanent reference marks under rule 32?

• A150 m
• B1,000 m
• C500 m
• D1,500 m

Subject to the rule 31 exceptions, how many permanent reference marks must a CSD contain to reference boundary points defined by survey under rule 32?

• AAt least one
• BAt least two
• CAt least four
• DThree or more

If a survey defines a height-limited boundary, what additional permanent-reference-mark requirement does rule 34 impose?

• AAt least two PRMs must have reduced levels
• BAll PRMs must be above ground
• CEvery PRM must connect directly to a tide gauge
• DAll PRMs must be Class A horizontally

Which boundary points are excluded by rule 31 from the requirement to be referenced by permanent reference marks?

• AAll boundary points in an urban residential cadastral survey
• BPoints on water boundaries, water centre-line boundaries, and irregular boundaries
• CAll rural right-line boundary points
• DEvery easement boundary point

Under rule 35, which new primary-parcel boundary points must generally be ground marked?

• AEvery new boundary point, including water and irregular boundaries
• BOnly points requested by the client
• CNew primary-parcel points, subject to the stated exceptions
• DOnly road-intersection points

A new primary-parcel boundary point is not marked because a rule 35 exception applies. What must the CSD do?

• AOmit the point
• BInvent an offset mark and omit any explanation
• CObtain a variance from the Minister
• DShow it unmarked and report why

Under Section 155 of the Land Transfer Act 2017, what is the minimum continuous period of adverse possession required before a person can apply to the Registrar-General of Land for a record of title?

• A20 years
• B10 years
• C30 years
• D50 years

How should a cadastral surveyor resolve conflicting old marks, dimensions, occupation, and other boundary evidence?

• AAlways prefer dimensions shown on the current record of title
• BApply rule 6 to all relevant evidence
• CSplit the discrepancy mathematically
• DAlways prefer current fences

Under Section 162 of the Land Transfer Act 2017, who may lodge a caveat to prevent an adverse possession application from being granted, and within what timeframe?

• AOnly the registered owner, at any time before the title is issued
• BOnly the territorial authority, within 12 months
• CA claimant to an estate or interest, within 60 working days
• DOnly the Surveyor-General, within 30 days

Under the Land Transfer Act 2017 and the Land Transfer Regulations 2018, what is the standard method for lodging and registering land transfer instruments?

• APhysical paper documents lodged at a land registry office
• BVerbal declarations recorded by the Registrar-General
• CPostal applications reviewed by the Minister for Land Information
• DElectronic lodgement through Landonline by an authorised practitioner

Which official geodetic datum is used for horizontal cadastral survey data in New Zealand?

• ANZGD2000
• BNZGD1949
• CWGS84
• DNZVD2016

Under Rule 10 of the Cadastral Survey Rules 2021, how is the water boundary of a parcel bordering a river or stream defined?

• ABy a straight line joining the endpoints of the property boundaries at the water's edge
• BBy the landward margin of the bed of the river or stream
• CBy the centre-line of the flow of the river or stream
• DBy the mean high-water mark of spring tides

What is the term used to describe the gradual and imperceptible natural deposit of soil by water that shifts a water boundary landward or riverward?

• AAvulsion
• BErosion
• CAccretion
• DReclamation

If a river suddenly abandons its old channel and creates a new one during a major flood, what happens to the legal boundary of the adjacent parcels under NZ land law?

• AThe boundary moves to the new channel immediately
• BThe land between the old and new channels becomes common marine area
• CThe boundary is automatically converted into a Class C right-line boundary at the average…
• DThe old-channel boundary stays fixed because the change was avulsive

When may an existing water-boundary position be adopted under rule 10 rather than redefined at the current margin?

• ANo erosion and no claimed accretion entitlement
• BWhenever the existing position appears on a previously approved CSD
• CWhenever council consents
• DOnly when the water body is dry

Which is NOT one of the six land statuses listed in section 129 of Te Ture Whenua Māori Act 1993?

• AMāori customary land
• BCrown grant Māori leasehold land
• CMāori freehold land
• DCrown land reserved for Māori

Under rule 24 of the Cadastral Survey Rules 2021, when may an adopted primary-parcel boundary point be Class C?

• AWhen it is located in a high-value urban commercial district
• BWhen it is a newly created boundary corner in a residential subdivision
• CA qualifying adopted point on a large parcel that meets either rule 24(b) pathway
• DWhen it is defined solely by GPS coordinates without physical marking

What does section 146 of Te Ture Whenua Māori Act 1993 provide about alienation of Māori freehold land?

• AMāori freehold land may be alienated without any statutory restriction
• BIt may be alienated only to the Crown
• CEvery lease is capped at five years
• DOnly as Te Ture Whenua Māori Act permits

When does Schedule 2 of the Cadastral Survey Rules 2021 require a boundary-definition conflict to be identified?

• AAn unresolved above-tolerance definition difference
• BWhenever neighbours disagree about a fence
• CWhenever a new measured distance differs in its last decimal place
• DOnly after disciplinary action begins

Under the Cadastral Survey Act 2002, what is the role of the Cadastral Surveyors Licensing Board (CSLB)?

• ATo draft the survey rules and set coordinates for the national datum
• BLicensing, registration, competency standards, and discipline
• CTo resolve boundary disputes between private property owners
• DTo review and approve all CSDs lodged by surveyors

Under Section 55 of the Cadastral Survey Act 2002, what is the legal consequence for a person who knowingly or recklessly takes, destroys, or alters the position of a cadastral survey mark?

• AThey are liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $1,000
• BThey are liable to immediate imprisonment for a term of up to 6 months
• CA fine up to $2,000 plus restoration costs
• DNo fine is applicable, but they must perform 100 hours of community service

What is the surveyor's core duty when defining a boundary under rule 6 of the Cadastral Survey Rules 2021?

• ACopy the most recent coordinate position displayed in Landonline
• BUse occupation without checking records
• CLet adjoining owners choose the position
• DDetermine it from all relevant evidence

A vector is adopted from an existing CSD. What do rules 14 and 75 require?

• AA permitted source, copied unchanged and attributed
• BApply a standard scale adjustment to every adopted vector
• CReplace every old mark
• DNever use the vector in a parcel calculation

What is the primary purpose of the Marine and Coastal Area (Takutai Moana) Act 2011?

• ATo grant exclusive ownership of the foreshore and seabed to the Crown
• BKeep the area ownerless while recognising customary interests
• CTo privatise all coastal land for commercial development
• DTo transfer all marine space to local council ownership

Which statement best reflects the current Marine and Coastal Area (Takutai Moana) Act 2011 regime after the 2025 amendments?

• AThe pre-2025 wording and case law can be used without checking amendments
• BCustomary marine title is obtained by owning adjacent dry land
• CUse the current amended Part 3 tests
• DA territorial authority grants customary marine title

A river margin has moved gradually through natural accretion. What is the surveyor's proper role?

• AAutomatically ignore the change
• BTransfer the added land to council
• CConvert the moving margin to a fixed Class A right-line boundary
• DApply rule 10; a CSD does not create ownership

Which statement about a unit-title body corporate's statutory functions is accurate?

• APerform the Act's body-corporate duties
• BIt sells units as agent for every owner
• CIt sets council rates
• DIt issues new records of title

Under the Unit Titles Act 2010, what is the process for creating a new unit title development?

• AThe surveyor simply lodges a CSD with LINZ and titles are issued automatically
• BRequired unit plan, RMA consent/certification, then LINZ deposit
• CThe body corporate votes to create new units and registers them with the Companies Office
• DThe Minister for Land Information issues unit titles by Gazette notice

What is a future development unit under the Unit Titles Act 2010?

• AAny unbuilt apartment advertised by a developer
• BA fixed 99-year lease
• CA staged-development principal unit
• DA unit that must be commercial

How may a unit boundary in a multi-storey building be defined?

• AOnly by ground pegs
• BOnly by a building centroid
• CAlways by the internal face of every wall, floor, and ceiling
• DAs the plan clearly depicts its three-dimensional limits

Which statement correctly describes the current CSLB licensing assessment pathway?

• AThe four current stages; final old law exam June 2025
• BA standalone two-hour annual cadastral law exam remains the complete assessment
• CPassing any online quiz grants a licence
• DThe old Annual Circular remains the governing 2026 framework

Under the Public Works Act 1981, which summary best describes ordinary acquisition of private land for a public work?

• AThe land is seized without procedure
• BPart 2 agreement or compulsory-acquisition process
• CThe Surveyor-General acquires it by changing coordinates
• DA council vote alone transfers title

Where does the Public Works Act 1981 principally provide for compensation when land is acquired or taken?

• APart 2 only
• BPart 8
• CPart 5
• DThe Cadastral Survey Act 2002

What does section 17 of the Public Works Act 1981 authorise?

• AA surveyor to issue a requirement notice
• BThe Registrar-General to set compensation
• CA neighbour to object to any public work
• DPublic-work acquisition by agreement

Under section 342(1)(a) of the Local Government Act 1974, how may a council stop a road or part of a road?

• ABy following Schedule 10, with prior ministerial consent where the rural-road proviso app…
• BBy passing an unpublished internal resolution with no statutory process
• CBy asking LINZ to delete the road solely from Landonline coordinates
• DBy obtaining consent from every ratepayer in the district

Who may apply under section 327 of the Property Law Act 2007 for reasonable access to landlocked land?

• AOnly the registered owner
• BAn owner or occupier
• CAny person anywhere who claims an interest
• DOnly an adjoining owner

Under the Marine and Coastal Area (Takutai Moana) Act 2011, where does the common marine and coastal area begin in relation to dry land titles?

• AAt the low-water mark of ordinary spring tides
• BAt the centre line of the foreshore
• CAt mean high-water springs (MHWS)
• DAt the 12-nautical-mile territorial limit

Which provision lists the matters the court must consider on a landlocked-land access application, and what is its approach?

• ASection 328; financial status is the only factor
• BSection 326; zoning is decisive
• CSection 330; topography is the only factor
• DThe factors listed in section 329

Under the Marine and Coastal Area (Takutai Moana) Act 2011, what is a 'protected customary right'?

• AA continuing customary activity recognised under Part 3
• BA freehold title to the foreshore and seabed
• CA commercial fishing quota issued by the Ministry for Primary Industries
• DA right to exclude the public from a section of beach

Which transaction is expressly capable of constituting a subdivision under section 218 of the Resource Management Act 1991?

• AA five-year lease of an entire building
• BA 36-year part-allotment lease, including renewals
• CA short grazing licence with no division of the allotment
• DA mortgage over the whole title

After a survey plan is submitted for approval under section 223 of the Resource Management Act 1991, within what time must the territorial authority approve or decline it?

• A5 working days
• B20 working days
• C10 working days
• D5 years