NVRA Certified Verbatim Reporter (CVR)

What is the primary tool a voice writer uses to dictate the record without being audible to others in the courtroom?

• AA lapel microphone clipped to the witness
• BA stenomask (silencer mask) held over the mouth
• CA boom microphone over the bench
• DA digital recorder placed on the table

A voice writer is taking a fast Q&A and the witness uses the word 'their.' Which substitution is most appropriate to prevent a recognition conflict in the voice software?

• ASay 'their' exactly as the witness spoke it
• BUse a unique briefing phrase or trained variant assigned in the user dictionary
• CSkip the word and let the proofreader insert it
• DSpell out T-H-E-I-R every time

Why is breath control especially important for voice writers compared with general dictation?

• ABecause the mask traps oxygen and limits respiration
• BBecause uneven breath patterns produce dropped syllables and recognition errors at high s…
• CBecause the court requires reporters to breathe quietly during testimony
• DBecause Dragon does not record while the reporter inhales

Which of the following is a correct definition of 'vocabulary substitution' in voice writing?

• AReplacing legal terms with plain English on the record
• BUsing a trained alternate word or phrase to force a specific software output and avoid co…
• CAsking the witness to use simpler vocabulary
• DEditing the transcript to remove slang

A voice writer notices that her recognition accuracy drops after about 45 minutes of continuous dictation. What is the most likely cause?

• AThe speech engine resets every 45 minutes
• BVoice fatigue altering pitch and articulation enough to degrade the trained voice profile
• CThe stenomask filter expires after 45 minutes
• DBackground noise increases after 45 minutes by default

When two witnesses speak at the same time, what is the proper voice writer technique?

• ADictate both speakers simultaneously and let the software sort it out
• BCapture one speaker and request that overlapping speakers be admonished or read back
• CSkip the overlap and note 'inaudible' in the record
• DTurn off the microphone until one speaker stops

Voice modulation in voice writing primarily refers to:

• AVarying speaking volume to entertain the jury
• BControlling pitch, pace, and articulation to match the trained voice profile
• CImitating the witness's accent for accuracy
• DUsing a different microphone for each speaker

Which of the following is the strongest reason to use a closed-cup stenomask rather than an open hand-held microphone?

• AIt looks more professional
• BIt blocks the reporter's voice from the courtroom and reduces ambient noise reaching the…
• CIt is required by FCC regulations
• DIt records louder than a regular microphone

A voice writer is dictating Q&A when the attorney says 'Withdrawn' immediately after asking a question. The correct technique is to:

• ADelete the question from the transcript silently
• BDictate the full question, the word 'withdrawn,' and any follow-up exchange exactly as sp…
• CSkip the question and start with the next attorney statement
• DAsk the attorney to repeat themselves

Why do voice writers typically train multiple punctuation commands such as 'period new line' or 'question mark new paragraph'?

• ABecause punctuation is optional on the official record
• BBecause dictating punctuation as voice commands is faster than typing it during proofing
• CBecause the software cannot insert punctuation any other way
• DBecause court rules forbid silent punctuation

Which of these conditions most commonly causes a voice writer's realtime feed to suddenly fill with garbled text?

• ANetwork latency
• BThe stenomask seal breaking and ambient noise reaching the microphone
• CCourt reporter speaking too clearly
• DCold weather

The recommended posture for sustained voice writing dictation is:

• AReclined to relax the vocal cords
• BUpright with feet flat and shoulders open to support diaphragmatic breathing
• CStanding at all times
• DHunched forward over the mask to keep volume low

A voice writer trains a 'conflict' between 'to' and 'two' by:

• ASaying both words at the same time
• BAssigning a trained alternate (such as 'two-numeral' or a unique brief) so the software o…
• CLetting the software guess based on grammar
• DSpeaking the words louder

When a witness mumbles, the voice writer should generally:

• AGuess the word and dictate the best fit
• BPolitely ask the court for read back or for the witness to repeat
• CMark the testimony as 'inaudible' without asking
• DContinue at full speed and fix it in proofing

Why is hydration considered part of voice writing technique?

• ABecause dry vocal folds cause articulation drift and recognition errors
• BBecause the mask requires moisture to function
• CBecause the software detects dehydration
• DBecause court rules require a water bottle

What is the purpose of 'shadowing' practice for voice writers?

• AFollowing another reporter to observe technique without dictating
• BRepeating live or recorded speech in realtime to build dictation speed and accuracy
• CUsing a backup reporter behind the primary reporter
• DFollowing the witness's gestures with the mask

A voice writer is dictating a deposition and the witness sneezes mid-sentence. The proper handling is to:

• AIgnore the sneeze and continue
• BDictate the sneeze as '(witness sneezes)' or a similar parenthetical if it interrupts the…
• CStop the deposition until the witness recovers
• DDelete the surrounding words

Which factor most directly determines whether a voice writer passes the 225 wpm Q&A skills leg?

• ATyping speed
• BAccuracy of dictation and recognition output, with at least 95% correct on the final tran…
• CLength of the recording
• DBrand of stenomask used

What is the most common reason a new voice writer struggles to break through 200 wpm?

• AInadequate stenomask seal
• BInconsistent articulation and pacing that drift the voice profile
• CSlow software response time
• DInsufficient computer memory

In voice writing, 'speaker identification' refers to:

• ADictating a brief tag or trained word that the software outputs as the speaker's role (e.…
• BAsking each witness to state their name twice
• CLetting the software guess who is speaking
• DListing all speakers at the end of the transcript

In civil procedure, a 'motion in limine' is filed primarily to:

• ACompel discovery responses
• BExclude certain evidence or testimony from being introduced at trial
• CRecuse a judge
• DSubstitute counsel

The Latin phrase 'voir dire' refers to:

• AThe closing argument
• BThe preliminary questioning of a juror or witness to determine qualification
• CAn appellate review
• DA motion to dismiss

In a deposition, 'on the record' means:

• AOff-camera
• BThe reporter is actively recording and the testimony is part of the official transcript
• CPrivileged and inadmissible
• DHearsay testimony

An attorney objects 'asked and answered.' This objection is grounded in:

• AHearsay
• BAvoiding repetitive questioning that wastes time and may harass the witness
• CBest evidence rule
• DSpousal privilege

In criminal procedure, 'arraignment' refers to:

• AFinal sentencing
• BThe hearing where the defendant is formally charged and enters a plea
• CThe grand jury vote
• DClosing arguments

The term 'hearsay' generally refers to:

• AAny out-of-court statement
• BAn out-of-court statement offered to prove the truth of the matter asserted
• CPrivileged communications between spouses
• DA leading question

Which of the following is a 'leading question'?

• A'What happened next?'
• B'You saw the defendant run the red light, didn't you?'
• C'Describe the scene.'
• D'How did you feel?'

'Subpoena duces tecum' compels a person to:

• AAppear in court only
• BAppear and produce specified documents or evidence
• CPay a fine
• DWaive trial by jury

A 'deposition' is best described as:

• AA trial verdict
• BOut-of-court sworn testimony recorded by a court reporter, used for discovery and potenti…
• CA judge's written opinion
• DAn appellate brief

'Prima facie' evidence means evidence that:

• AIs privileged and inadmissible
• BOn its face is sufficient to establish a fact or case unless rebutted
• CWas obtained illegally
• DIs hearsay

In criminal law, 'beyond a reasonable doubt' is:

• AA civil burden of proof
• BThe highest standard of proof, required to convict a criminal defendant
• CThe same as a preponderance of the evidence
• DApplied only at sentencing

An 'interrogatory' is:

• AAn oral deposition
• BA written question served on a party that must be answered under oath in writing
• CA motion for summary judgment
• DA jury instruction

'Nolo contendere' is best translated as:

• ANot guilty
• BI do not contest
• CGuilty as charged
• DInsufficient evidence

In civil litigation, 'voir dire of an expert' refers to:

• AFinal cross-examination
• BPreliminary questioning to challenge the expert's qualifications before they testify subs…
• CClosing argument
• DSettlement negotiation

A 'sidebar' in a courtroom is:

• AA break for the jury
• BA brief private discussion at the bench between the judge and attorneys, usually out of t…
• CClosing argument
• DAn off-the-record lunch break

A 'motion to suppress' in criminal procedure typically seeks to:

• ADismiss the indictment
• BExclude evidence allegedly obtained in violation of the defendant's constitutional rights
• CCompel jury selection
• DSubstitute counsel

The 'caption' of a deposition or pleading is:

• AThe signature line
• BThe heading containing court, case number, parties, and document title
• CThe notary block
• DThe list of exhibits

'Res ipsa loquitur' is a tort doctrine meaning approximately:

• AThe defendant is presumed innocent
• BThe thing speaks for itself, allowing inference of negligence from the nature of the acci…
• CHearsay is inadmissible
• DThe court has no jurisdiction

The medical term 'myocardial infarction' refers to:

• AA stroke
• BA heart attack caused by interrupted blood supply to heart muscle
• CInflammation of the lungs
• DA blood clot in the leg

The prefix 'hemi-' in medical terminology means:

• AAbove
• BHalf
• CBelow
• DAround

The 'cervical' spine refers to which region?

• ALower back
• BNeck
• CMid-back
• DTailbone

An 'MRI' scan uses:

• AIonizing radiation
• BMagnetic fields and radio waves to produce images of internal structures
• CSound waves only
• DRadioactive dye injection only

The medication 'Oxycontin' is classified as a(n):

• AAntibiotic
• BOpioid analgesic
• CAntidepressant
• DAntihypertensive

The medical suffix '-ectomy' means:

• AInflammation of
• BSurgical removal of
• CVisualization of
• DRepair of

An 'EMG' test measures:

• ABrain electrical activity
• BElectrical activity of muscles and the nerves that control them
• CLung function
• DBone density

The condition 'sciatica' typically causes pain that radiates:

• AFrom the head down the arm
• BFrom the lower back down the leg along the sciatic nerve
• CAcross the chest
• DAround the abdomen

A 'herniated disc' refers to:

• ACompression fracture of a vertebra
• BDisplacement of the gel-like inner material of an intervertebral disc beyond its normal b…
• CInflammation of a spinal joint
• DLoss of bone density in the spine