NVRA Certified Master (CM)

What three dictation speeds make up the NVRA Certified Master (CM) Skills Test?

• A180 / 200 / 225 wpm
• B200 / 240 / 260 wpm
• C220 / 250 / 280 wpm
• D160 / 200 / 240 wpm

What is the minimum transcription accuracy required to pass each CM Skills Test leg?

• A90%
• B92.5%
• C95%
• D97.5%

A voice writer is consistently losing voice clarity in the last minute of a 260 WPM Q&A practice leg. The most effective targeted fix is to:

• AIncrease global practice volume only
• BDrill diaphragmatic breath control and pacing breaks into brief packs
• CSwitch to a heavier microphone
• DStop practicing testimony entirely until 240 WPM is perfect

On the 260 WPM testimony leg, a CM candidate hits an unfamiliar drug name from a pharmacology expert. The safest in-the-moment technique is to:

• ASkip the term and reconstruct it from memory afterward
• BUse a fingerspelling alternative such as a standard untranslate marker and recover on the…
• CStop dictation to clarify the spelling
• DSubstitute a generic placeholder like 'the drug'

What is the primary purpose of brief development for a CM-level voice writer?

• ATo slow speech rhythm during dictation
• BTo compress recurring multi-word phrases into shorter vocal forms so high-speed legs stay…
• CTo replace punctuation
• DTo skip difficult words

During the jury charge leg at 240 WPM, dropped function words ('the', 'a', 'of') would best be reduced by:

• ASlowing the entire practice session
• BDrilling articulation patterns and chord-style phrase briefs at 240+ WPM
• CIgnoring small words and focusing only on nouns
• DSwitching to typing instead of voice writing

Voice modulation under pressure refers primarily to:

• ASpeaking as loudly as possible
• BControlling pitch, volume, and pace so the voice profile stays recognizable to translatio…
• CWhispering to conserve energy
• DAdding emotion to match witnesses

Why are CM candidates encouraged to practice at speeds above 260 WPM before test day?

• ABecause the NVRA exam may add a fourth speed
• BBecause over-speed practice builds a comfort margin so the 260 WPM testimony leg feels co…
• CBecause faster practice replaces the need for accuracy review
• DBecause NVRA scores 260 WPM at a lower accuracy threshold

A CM candidate's voice profile drifts when they are stressed. The best mitigation is to:

• ARetrain the voice profile on calm dictation only
• BRetrain or supplement the voice profile with samples recorded under realistic pressure co…
• CDisable the voice profile during the exam
• DSwitch microphones immediately

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate technique for managing fatigue across three back-to-back five-minute CM legs?

• AHydration and short between-leg recovery routines
• BDiaphragmatic breathing and posture resets between legs
• CPushing volume higher with each subsequent leg
• DPre-staged brief packs to reduce vocal load on the fastest leg

At 260 WPM, attorney-to-witness transitions are most often missed when:

• AThe voice writer pauses to capitalize the speaker label
• BSpeaker stems are not pre-briefed and the voice writer's rhythm collapses at the handoff
• CThe witness speaks slowly
• DThere is no court reporter in the room

Why is a stable microphone seal critical for CM-level performance?

• AIt increases dictation volume
• BIt maintains a consistent acoustic signature that matches the trained voice profile
• CIt improves video quality
• DIt replaces the need for briefs

A CM candidate notices their accuracy plateaus at 248 WPM. The most diagnostic next step is to:

• APractice exclusively at 200 WPM
• BRecord short over-speed bursts and analyze where the breakdown occurs (briefs, function w…
• CTake a multi-week break from voice writing
• DChange voice profiles entirely

Which practice schedule is most consistent with NVRA-recommended high-speed skill building?

• AOne marathon two-hour session per week
• BShort, focused daily sessions targeting one weakness at a time
• CPractice only the night before the exam
• DOnly listen to dictation passively

Why are pre-built brief packs for objection language particularly valuable at CM speed?

• AObjections are not transcribed
• BObjections cluster around predictable phrases ('objection, form', 'objection, asked and a…
• CObjections are scored differently
• DObjections only appear at 200 WPM

Reading-back protocol for a voice writer means:

• AReading the transcript aloud to the deponent
• BStopping dictation to read questions back to the speakers when requested or required by p…
• CRe-recording the entire deposition
• DAsking the audio recorder to replay

Which factor most directly limits a voice writer's sustained accuracy at 260 WPM?

• AThe brand of stenograph machine
• BVocal articulation speed and breath capacity, paired with brief-pack execution
• CWhether the candidate is sitting or standing
• DRoom temperature

When a CM candidate hears overlapping speakers in testimony, the correct verbatim response is to:

• APick one speaker and ignore the other
• BVoice both speakers' text with appropriate speaker labels and use 'simultaneous' or '(cro…
• CStop dictating until they finish
• DSkip the overlap

In appellate proceedings, the term 'remand' most precisely means:

• ADismissing the case entirely
• BSending the case back to the lower court for further action
• CAffirming the lower court's decision
• DGranting a new trial

An appellate brief's 'statement of the case' typically includes:

• AOnly the appellant's legal arguments
• BProcedural history, relevant facts, and the rulings being appealed
• CWitness cross-examination transcripts
• DSettlement negotiations

In a multi-defendant criminal case, a 'severance motion' asks the court to:

• ACombine all defendants into one trial
• BTry one or more defendants separately from the others
• CDismiss all defendants
• DChange the venue

The doctrine of 'res judicata' bars:

• AAny new lawsuit on any subject
• BRe-litigation of claims already decided on the merits between the same parties
• CAppeals of any kind
• DCross-examination of expert witnesses

In complex commercial litigation, a 'special master' is most commonly appointed to:

• AReplace the trial judge
• BAssist the court with discovery management, accounting, or technical fact-finding
• CArgue on behalf of one party
• DEmpanel the jury

A 'Markman hearing' is held in which type of litigation?

• AFamily law
• BPatent infringement
• CWorkers' compensation
• DProbate

In appellate practice, 'de novo' review means the appellate court:

• ADefers entirely to the trial court's findings
• BReviews the issue without deference to the lower court's conclusion
• CReviews only for clear error
• DCannot review the issue

A 'motion in limine' typically asks the court to:

• ADismiss the entire case
• BRule on the admissibility of certain evidence before it is presented at trial
• CAward attorney fees
• DChange the jury composition

In a multi-defendant trial, 'Bruton issues' relate to:

• AJury selection bias
• BAdmission of a non-testifying co-defendant's confession that implicates another defendant
• CExpert witness qualifications
• DVenue selection

An 'interlocutory appeal' is:

• AAn appeal filed after final judgment
• BAn appeal of a non-final ruling, typically allowed only in limited circumstances
• CA motion for new trial
• DAn appeal automatically granted in all cases

In commercial litigation, a 'protective order' is most commonly used to:

• APrevent a witness from testifying
• BLimit disclosure or use of confidential information produced in discovery
• CStop the trial
• DForce a settlement

The phrase 'piercing the corporate veil' refers to:

• ADisclosing a corporation's tax returns
• BHolding individual shareholders personally liable for corporate obligations
• CRenaming a corporation
• DFiling articles of incorporation

When dictating 'voir dire' on a CM testimony leg, the voice writer should:

• ASpell it phonetically as 'vor deer'
• BPronounce and brief it cleanly so it translates to the standard spelling 'voir dire'
• CSkip the term
• DTranslate it as 'questioning'

An 'amicus curiae' brief is filed by:

• AOne of the named parties to the case
• BA non-party 'friend of the court' offering perspective on the legal issues
• CThe trial judge
• DA court reporter

The 'business judgment rule' generally:

• AHolds directors strictly liable for any bad outcome
• BProtects directors from liability for decisions made in good faith with reasonable care
• CRequires unanimous board votes
• DBars derivative lawsuits entirely

A 'spoliation' instruction tells the jury that:

• AA witness has been impeached
• BA party destroyed or failed to preserve evidence, and the jury may draw an adverse infere…
• CThe trial is delayed
• DThe verdict has been entered

In medical testimony, 'myocardial infarction' refers to:

• AInflammation of the joints
• BDeath of heart muscle tissue caused by interrupted blood supply
• CKidney failure
• DA type of fracture

The procedure called 'laparoscopic cholecystectomy' is:

• ARemoval of the appendix through open surgery
• BMinimally invasive removal of the gallbladder
• CRepair of the spinal cord
• DRemoval of a kidney stone

An MRI showing 'L4-L5 disc herniation with radiculopathy' indicates:

• AA skull fracture
• BA bulging or ruptured intervertebral disc in the lumbar spine with associated nerve-root…
• CAn inflamed liver
• DA torn rotator cuff

The term 'iatrogenic' describes a condition that is:

• AGenetic in origin
• BCaused by medical treatment or examination
• CSelf-inflicted
• DOf unknown cause

Which drug class includes 'metoprolol' and 'atenolol'?

• AAntibiotics
• BBeta-blockers used for hypertension and arrhythmia
• CAntidepressants
• DAntifungals

A 'CT angiography' study is used primarily to:

• AImage the bones of the foot
• BVisualize blood vessels using a CT scanner with contrast
• CTest hearing
• DMeasure lung capacity

The term 'differential diagnosis' refers to:

• AA confirmed final diagnosis
• BThe list of possible conditions a clinician considers based on a patient's presentation
• CA second opinion
• DA billing code

In oncology testimony, 'metastasis' means:

• AThe original tumor site
• BSpread of cancer cells from the primary site to distant tissues
• CSurgical removal of the tumor
• DA benign growth

A 'Glasgow Coma Scale' (GCS) score is used to:

• AMeasure blood sugar
• BAssess level of consciousness after a brain injury or in critical care
• CEvaluate hearing thresholds
• DDetermine kidney function

The medication class containing 'oxycodone' and 'hydrocodone' is best described as:

• ANSAIDs
• BOpioid analgesics
• CDiuretics
• DAnticoagulants

A 'percutaneous coronary intervention' (PCI) is:

• AOpen-heart bypass surgery
• BCatheter-based opening of a blocked coronary artery, often with stent placement
• CA lung transplant
• DA diagnostic blood draw

In obstetrics testimony, 'shoulder dystocia' refers to:

• AA shoulder fracture in adults
• BDifficulty delivering the fetal shoulders after the head has emerged during birth
• CA neonatal eye condition
• DAn adult arthritis variant

The medical abbreviation 'COPD' stands for:

• AChronic obstructive pulmonary disease
• BCoronary occlusive plaque disorder
• CCardiac output pressure deficit
• DCerebral oxygen perfusion drop

In endocrinology, 'HbA1c' measures:

• ACholesterol levels
• BAverage blood glucose control over approximately three months
• CLiver enzyme activity
• DWhite blood cell count