NCAA Air Traffic Controller Licence Examination (Nigeria)

Under Nig. CARs Part 2, what is the minimum age requirement for an applicant to be issued an Air Traffic Controller Licence in Nigeria?

• A18 years
• B21 years
• C23 years
• D25 years

Which class of Aviation Medical Certificate is required for an Air Traffic Controller under Nig. CARs Part 2?

• AClass 1 Medical Certificate
• BClass 2 Medical Certificate
• CClass 3 Medical Certificate
• DClass 4 Medical Certificate

What is the minimum ICAO Language Proficiency rating required for an operational Air Traffic Controller under Nig. CARs Part 2?

• ALevel 3 (Pre-Operational)
• BLevel 4 (Operational)
• CLevel 5 (Extended)
• DLevel 6 (Expert)

Which rating is NOT one of the standard ATC rating categories established under Nig. CARs Part 2?

• AAerodrome Control Rating
• BApproach Control Procedural Rating
• CFlight Dispatcher Control Rating
• DArea Control Surveillance Rating

What is the validity period of a Class 3 Medical Certificate for an Air Traffic Controller under 40 years of age under Nig. CARs Part 2?

• A6 months
• B12 months
• C24 months
• D48 months

Under Nig. CARs, what is the maximum permissible Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) for an Air Traffic Controller while on duty?

• A0.00%
• B0.02%
• C0.04%
• D0.08%

According to Nig. CARs Part 14, how is the Aerodrome Reference Point (ARP) defined?

• AThe exact midpoint of the primary runway threshold
• BThe designated geographic center of the aerodrome
• CThe highest point on the landing movement area
• DThe control tower antenna location

What does Take-Off Run Available (TORA) represent under Nig. CARs Part 14?

• ALength of runway declared available and suitable for the ground run of an aircraft taking…
• BTORA plus the length of any available clearway
• CTORA plus the length of any available stopway
• DLength of runway available for an aircraft landing

How is Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA) calculated under Nig. CARs Part 14?

• AASDA = TORA + Clearway
• BASDA = TORA + Stopway
• CASDA = TODA + Stopway
• DASDA = LDA + Clearway

Under Nig. CARs Part 14, what color must runway edge lights exhibit?

• AGreen along the entire runway
• BVariable white, except yellow on the last 600 m or one-third of the runway
• CRed along the first half and white on the second half
• DBlue for precision runways and white for non-precision runways

What is the mandatory light color for runway threshold lights under Nig. CARs Part 14?

• ARed unidirectional lights facing the approach
• BGreen unidirectional lights facing the approach
• CWhite omnidirectional flashing lights
• DYellow steady lights

Within what mandatory timeframe must a critical air traffic safety occurrence be reported to the NCAA under mandatory occurrence reporting regulations?

• AWithin 12 hours
• BWithin 24 hours
• CWithin 72 hours
• DWithin 7 days

What is the recency of experience (currency) requirement for an ATC rating holder under Nig. CARs Part 2?

• AMust have exercised rating privileges within the preceding 3 months
• BMust have exercised rating privileges within the preceding 6 months
• CMust have completed at least 50 hours of control in the preceding 12 months
• DMust pass a written examination every 2 years

What is the function of Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?

• ATo provide visual guidance during final glidepath descent
• BTo provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a runway
• CTo indicate the exact midpoint of a long runway
• DTo illuminate taxiway turnoffs

What is the primary purpose of Obstacle Limitation Surfaces (OLS) defined under Nig. CARs Part 14?

• ATo establish noise abatement flight corridors
• BTo define the airspace around aerodromes that must be kept clear of obstacles for safe op…
• CTo set minimum radar separation altitudes
• DTo delineate terminal maneuvering boundaries

When a threshold is permanently displaced, how does it affect the declared distances for landing and take-off?

• AReduces TORA and TODA, but LDA remains unchanged
• BReduces LDA for aircraft landing in that direction, while full TORA is available for take…
• CIncreases ASDA and LDA equally
• DHas no effect on declared distances

Under Nig. CARs Part 14, what is the maximum allowable length of a Clearway relative to the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)?

• AMust not exceed 25% of TORA
• BMust not exceed 50% of TORA
• CMust not exceed 75% of TORA
• DMust be equal to TORA

Which operational factor is strictly governed under Nig. CARs ATC fatigue risk management regulations?

• AMaximum aircraft count per controller per shift
• BMaximum continuous operational position time without a relief break
• CMinimum radio frequency bandwidth
• DRequired aircraft separation matrix

What is the mandatory operational limitation on a Student Air Traffic Controller under Nig. CARs Part 2?

• ACan only control VFR aircraft in daylight
• BMust operate under the direct supervision of an authorized On-the-Job Training Instructor…
• CCannot issue IFR clearances under any circumstance
• DCan only operate at uncontrolled aerodromes

If an ATC rating holder has not exercised rating privileges for 12 consecutive months, what is required by NCAA to restore rating currency?

• APay a recency fee and resume duty
• BComplete approved refresher training, OJT under supervision, and pass a practical check e…
• CRetake the entire ab-initio ATC course from start
• DLog 100 hours of simulator control independently

Unless otherwise instructed by ATC or published in AIP, what is the standard circuit direction for aerodrome operations?

• ARight-hand circuit
• BLeft-hand circuit
• CStraight-in approach only
• DBi-directional circuit

What is the primary responsibility of an Aerodrome Control Tower?

• AProviding en-route separation between aircraft in upper airspace
• BIssuing oceanic clearances
• CPreventing collisions between aircraft operating on the maneuvering area and in the aerod…
• DProviding radar vectoring for final approach arrivals at 40 NM

Which of the following items requires MANDATORY readback by a pilot in radiotelephony communications?

• AWeather reports received via ATIS
• BRunway in use, altimeter setting, and taxi/takeoff clearances
• CTraffic information on visual VFR targets
• DEn-route flight hazard warnings

What does a STEADY GREEN light gun signal from the tower indicate to an aircraft ON THE GROUND?

• ACleared for takeoff
• BCleared to taxi
• CStop immediately
• DGive way to other aircraft and continue circling

What does a FLASHING RED light gun signal mean to an aircraft IN FLIGHT?

• AAirport unsafe, do not land
• BCleared to land
• CGive way to other aircraft and continue circling
• DLand at this airport and proceed to apron

What does an ALTERNATING RED AND GREEN light gun signal mean to both ground vehicles and aircraft?

• ACleared to proceed
• BExercise extreme caution
• CReturn to starting point
• DEmergency in progress - evacuate runway

What does a FLASHING WHITE light gun signal indicate to an aircraft ON THE GROUND?

• ACleared to taxi
• BCleared for takeoff
• CReturn to starting point on aerodrome
• DStop

Among the following situations, which aircraft has HIGHEST priority for landing at an aerodrome?

• AA scheduled commercial airliner on fixed flight schedule
• BAn aircraft declaring an emergency due to low fuel
• CA VIP transport aircraft carrying government officials
• DA military jet on a routine transfer flight

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, which aircraft has the right-of-way under general flight rules?

• AThe aircraft approaching from the left
• BThe aircraft approaching from the right
• CThe faster aircraft
• DThe heavier aircraft

When two aircraft are on final approach to land, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

• AThe aircraft at the higher altitude
• BThe aircraft at the lower altitude, provided it does not cut in front of another aircraft…
• CThe aircraft flying at higher airspeed
• DThe aircraft that established radio contact first

In a standard visual traffic circuit, which leg is flown parallel to the runway in the direction opposite to landing?

• ACrosswind leg
• BDownwind leg
• CBase leg
• DUpwind leg

What is a mandatory requirement when issuing a CONDITIONAL CLEARANCE in radiotelephony (e.g. 'after departing Boeing 737')?

• AThe condition must be repeated twice by the controller
• BThe aircraft or vehicle causing the condition must be in sight of both controller and pil…
• CConditional clearances are prohibited at night
• DThe clearance can only be issued by Approach Control

What is the primary operational objective of a Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)?

• ATo automate radar vectoring for approach arrivals
• BTo prevent collisions between aircraft, and between aircraft and vehicles on the aerodrom…
• CTo calculate runway visual range continuously
• DTo coordinate flight plans between adjacent Area Control Centres

Which air traffic control unit is responsible for providing ATC service to arriving and departing IFR flights within a Terminal Control Area (TMA)?

• AAerodrome Control Tower
• BApproach Control Office / Unit
• CArea Control Centre (ACC)
• DFlight Information Centre (FIC)

What is the primary function of an Area Control Centre (ACC)?

• AControlling surface traffic on airport taxiways
• BProviding air traffic control service to controlled flights in control areas (en-route ai…
• CIssuing weather forecasts for general aviation
• DConducting search and rescue dispatch

How frequently is an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) broadcast typically updated?

• AEvery 15 minutes continuously
• BUpon any significant change in meteorological or aerodrome information, or at least hourly
• COnly once every 4 hours
• DOnly when requested by an arriving pilot

What is the standard phraseology for a pilot to report maintaining an assigned altitude of 35,000 ft in standard pressure conditions?

• AMAINTAINING 350 HUNDRED FEET
• BREACHED THIRTY FIVE THOUSAND
• CMAINTAINING FLIGHT LEVEL 350
• DCRUISING ALTITUDE 350

When an IFR aircraft experiences complete radiocommunications failure in VMC, what action should the pilot take?

• AImmediately climb to maximum certified ceiling
• BSquawk 7600, continue in VMC, land at nearest suitable aerodrome, and report arrival to A…
• CExecute an immediate 180-degree turn to departure airport
• DDescend to uncontrolled Class G airspace immediately

Which SSR transponder mode A code indicates an aircraft subject to UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE (hijacking)?

• ACode 7500
• BCode 7600
• CCode 7700
• DCode 2000

What is a key requirement for ATC to issue a SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) clearance inside a Control Zone?

• AGround visibility must be at least 1.5 km (or 800 m for helicopters) and pilot must remai…
• BFlight must be conducted above FL100
• CAircraft must be equipped with dual autopilot
• DFlight must maintain at least 1,000 ft vertical clearance from clouds

Under what condition may Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) be issued by an air traffic controller?

• AOnly when requested by ATC during severe weather
• BOnly if accepted by the pilot-in-command and published LAHSO distance criteria are satisf…
• CAutomatically to all arriving light aircraft without pilot consent
• DOnly during night instrument meteorological conditions

What is the right-of-way relationship between aircraft and ground vehicles on an aerodrome maneuvering area?

• AGround vehicles always have right-of-way over taxying aircraft
• BAircraft taking off or landing have absolute right-of-way over all ground vehicles
• CEmergency vehicles have right-of-way over landing aircraft at all times
• DRight-of-way is strictly determined by speed

When a controller observes an aircraft deviating significantly from its assigned clearance on radar, what is the IMMEDIATE required action?

• AFile a violation report before contacting the aircraft
• BAlert the pilot immediately, verify altitude/heading, and re-issue corrective clearance
• CHand over control to supervisor immediately
• DTurn off radar tracking for that target

What capability distinguishes Precision Approach Radar (PAR) from Aerodrome Surveillance Radar (ASR)?

• APAR provides altitude/elevation (glidepath) information in addition to azimuth and range
• BPAR covers a 360-degree sector up to 200 NM
• CASR provides precise 3D glidepath guidance to touchdown
• DPAR is used exclusively for en-route control

What visual condition is required for a pilot to be cleared for a VISUAL APPROACH?

• AThe pilot must have the aerodrome or preceding aircraft in sight and maintain visual cont…
• BCeiling must be at least 5,000 ft and visibility 10 km
• CVisual approaches can only be executed in Class G airspace
• DThe aircraft must remain on the ILS localizer centerline

What is the standard vertical separation minimum between IFR aircraft below Flight Level 290?

• A500 feet
• B1,000 feet
• C1,500 feet
• D2,000 feet

What vertical separation minimum is required between non-RVSM aircraft operating above FL290 up to FL410?

• A1,000 feet
• B1,500 feet
• C2,000 feet
• D4,000 feet

What altitude block defines Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace?

• AFL180 to FL290
• BFL290 to FL410 inclusive
• CFL350 to FL450
• DFL410 to FL600