MCAA Commercial Pilot Licence Theoretical Knowledge Examination (CPL, Mongolia)

Under CAR 61.203(a), which combination of minimum age and medical certificate is required for a Mongolian Commercial Pilot Licence?

• A17 years; Class 2 medical
• B21 years; Class 1 medical
• C18 years; Class 2 medical
• D18 years; Class 1 medical

Under CAR 61.203(a)(4)(i), what minimum total flight experience is required for a CPL(A)?

• A150 hours in all cases
• B200 hours, or 150 hours after a full approved course
• C250 hours, or 200 hours after an approved course
• D200 hours in all cases

AC61-5 Appendix I sets out the specific flight experience acceptable to the Director for a CPL(A). Which set of minimums is correct?

• A100 h PIC, 30 h cross-country, 10 h night, 10 h instrument
• B50 h PIC, 20 h cross-country, 5 h night, 5 h instrument
• C100 h PIC, 50 h cross-country, 20 h night, 40 h instrument
• D70 h PIC, 30 h cross-country, 10 h night, 20 h instrument

Under CAR 61.17, what is the pass mark for each CPL written examination, and how long is a completed CPL written credit valid?

• A65%; valid for 2 years
• B70%; valid for 10 years
• C70%; valid for 3 years
• D75%; valid for 3 years

Under CAR 61.13(a)(4), what minimum English language proficiency must a pilot hold to operate international flights using radiotelephony?

• AICAO Level 2 (Elementary)
• BICAO Level 4 (Operational)
• CICAO Level 3 (Pre-operational)
• DICAO Level 6 (Expert)

A commercial pilot is assessed at ICAO Level 4 English. Under AC61-1 Rev 4 §2.2.3, for how long does the language proficiency endorsement remain current?

• A1 year from the assessment
• B6 years from the assessment
• C3 years from the assessment
• DFor the holder's lifetime

Under AC61-5 §1.5, when may a current foreign CPL be accepted as meeting the Mongolian CPL written examination requirements?

• ANever; every CPL subject must be passed again in Mongolia, whatever the applicant's exper…
• BAlways, for all subjects including air law, if issued by an ICAO Contracting State
• COnly for air law, given 250 h PIC since issue; every other subject must be re-sat
• DAll subjects except air law, given 250 h commercial PIC since the licence was issued

A company wants to carry fare-paying passengers commercially in Mongolia. Which certificate must the operator hold?

• AAn air operator certificate issued under CAR 119
• BA flight training organisation certificate under CAR 141
• CAn aero club certificate under CAR 149
• DA maintenance organisation certificate under CAR 145

A CPL holder flies a 9-passenger-seat piston twin with an MCTOW of 3,000 kg for an air operator. Which Mongolian operating rule governs these commercial flights?

• ACAR 135
• BCAR 121
• CCAR 125
• DCAR 137

Before a charter flight, a passenger appears heavily intoxicated. What does CAR 91.203 allow the pilot-in-command to do?

• ANothing; only the operator's ground staff may refuse boarding
• BCarry the passenger, as every ticketed passenger must be carried
• CDelay the flight until police remove the passenger
• DRefuse carriage or offload any person or cargo that may endanger the aircraft

Under CAR 61.205(a), which privilege does a Mongolian CPL(A) holder have?

• APIC of a multi-pilot aeroplane on an air transport operation
• BPIC of any aeroplane type without a type rating
• CPIC of a single-pilot aeroplane operated for hire or reward
• DNight PIC without any logbook certification

Under CAR 91.209(a), when must crew and passengers in an unpressurised aircraft use supplemental oxygen?

• AOnly above 18,000 ft AMSL
• BAbove 10,000 ft for any period over 30 minutes, and always above 13,000 ft
• COnly when flying at night above 8,000 ft AMSL
• DAbove 12,500 ft for over 30 minutes, and always above 14,000 ft

A piston-engine twin on an IFR flight burns 90 litres per hour at holding speed. Under CAR 91.403(a), what final reserve must it carry beyond the destination (or required alternate)?

• A45 litres
• B90 litres
• C67.5 litres
• D30 litres

What is a Minimum Equipment List (MEL) as referred to in CAR 91.537 and 91.539?

• AA Director-approved list of items that may be inoperative at dispatch, with conditions
• BThe manufacturer's catalogue of optional equipment that operators may choose to fit
• CThe list of emergency and survival equipment carried on flights over remote areas
• DThe schedule of heavy maintenance checks laid down in the operator's approved maintenance…

What speed limit does CAR 91.237 set for an aeroplane flying VFR in Class C airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL?

• A200 kt IAS
• B250 kt IAS (460 km/h)
• C250 kt TAS
• DNo limit applies in controlled airspace

Which occurrence is an example of a serious incident as defined in ICAO Annex 13 and reportable under CAR 12?

• AAn engine shut down by the crew during a routine ground run
• BA scheduled tyre change after normal wear
• CA diversion because of forecast weather at the destination
• DA near collision that required an avoidance manoeuvre

Under CAR 91.307, when must a pilot-in-command file a VFR flight plan with the appropriate ATS unit?

• AFor every flight, whatever the airspace
• BOnly for flights leaving the Ulaanbaatar FIR
• CNever, because flight plans are for IFR only
• DWhen ATC service is to be used or alerting service is requested

Under CAR 91.115, what minimum number of cabin crew is required on an aeroplane with more than 19 passenger seats carrying 45 passengers?

• ANone
• BAt least 2
• CAt least 1
• DAt least 3

Under CAR 61.21(a)(5), what must happen to the written examination knowledge deficiency reports (KDRs) before a CPL flight test?

• AA Category A or B instructor certifies the gaps were covered, and the examiner sees them
• BThe KDRs are discarded once every written subject has been passed within the qualifying p…
• CEvery subject showing a KDR entry must be re-sat before the flight test can be booked
• DThe KDRs are sent to MCAA with the licence application, after the flight test is passed

Under CAR 61.39(b), which CPL holder does NOT need a separate biennial flight review?

• AA pilot who has not flown for 5 years
• BA pilot who holds only a Class 2 medical certificate
• CA pilot meeting the competency checks of CAR 119/121, 125 or 135
• DA pilot who has passed the CPL written examinations

What is the key difference between a great circle and a rhumb line?

• AA great circle crosses meridians at a constant angle; a rhumb line is the shortest route
• BA great circle is the shortest route; a rhumb line crosses meridians at a constant angle
• CBoth are straight lines on a Mercator chart
• DThey differ only close to the equator

How do meridians and great circles appear on a Lambert conformal conic chart?

• AMeridians are parallel straight lines; great circles appear as S-shaped curves
• BMeridians curve towards the equator; great circles appear as complete circles
• CMeridians are straight and converge on the pole; great circles are nearly straight
• DMeridians and rhumb lines both appear as straight, parallel lines across the chart

Two aerodromes are 360 NM apart. Groundspeed onward to the destination is 110 kt and groundspeed back to the departure point is 130 kt. How far from departure is the point of equal time (PET)?

• A165 NM
• B180 NM
• C210 NM
• D195 NM

An aeroplane has 4.5 hours of safe endurance, excluding reserves. Groundspeed outbound is 130 kt and homebound 150 kt. What is the time and distance to the point of safe return (PSR)?

• A2 h 25 min, about 313 NM
• B2 h 15 min, about 293 NM
• C2 h 05 min, about 271 NM
• D2 h 45 min, about 358 NM

How does distance measuring equipment (DME) determine range to a ground beacon?

• ABy timing airborne interrogation pulses and the beacon's reply pulses
• BBy measuring the Doppler shift of a continuous-wave signal
• CBy comparing the phase of a reference and a rotating signal
• DBy measuring the angle of arrival of a radio beam

An aircraft at FL120 passes directly over a DME beacon sited near sea level. Approximately what does the DME display?

• A0 NM
• B1 NM
• C12 NM
• DAbout 2 NM

On a conventional VOR indicator with five dots either side, what angular deviation does full-scale deflection of the course deviation needle represent?

• A5°
• B2°
• C10°
• D20°

What is the function of receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM) in a GNSS receiver?

• ATo couple the autopilot for CAT III GNSS landings
• BTo check satellite signals and geometry for integrity, alerting the pilot if unreliable
• CTo calculate groundspeed from inertial sensors when satellites are lost
• DTo pick the strongest satellite and ignore all others

How many satellites must a GPS receiver track for a three-dimensional fix, and how many for basic RAIM fault detection?

• A3 for a 3D fix; 4 for fault detection
• B5 for a 3D fix; 6 for fault detection
• C4 for a 3D fix; 5 for fault detection
• D4 for a 3D fix; 8 for fault detection

An aircraft on a magnetic heading of 240° has an NDB at a relative bearing of 030°. What is the magnetic bearing to the station (QDM)?

• A270°
• B210°
• C240°
• D090°

Two Mongolian aerodromes lie at a mean latitude of 48°N with 10° difference in longitude. What are the earth convergency and the conversion angle between them?

• AConvergency 10.0°; conversion angle 5.0°
• BConvergency 7.43°; conversion angle 3.72°
• CConvergency 5.00°; conversion angle 2.50°
• DConvergency 14.9°; conversion angle 7.43°

What causes 'night effect' on ADF bearings, especially around dusk and dawn?

• AAlternator voltage fluctuations after dark
• BCooling of the VOR antenna changing radial alignment
• CDME pulses failing when temperatures drop
• DSky waves reflected by the ionosphere interfering with the ground wave

A pilot uses an NDB while flying close to the high ridges of the Khangai range. Which ADF error is most likely?

• ACoastal refraction as the signal crosses a shoreline
• BQuadrantal error caused by the aircraft's wings
• CNight effect, which occurs only above 10,000 ft
• DMountain effect from signals reflected by high terrain

What happens to VOR indications as the aircraft passes through the 'cone of confusion' directly over the station?

• AThe DME reading falls to exactly zero
• BThe deviation needle swings and the TO/FROM flag reverses
• CThe transponder stops replying to radar
• DThe GPS signal is jammed by the VOR transmitter

How does the sensitivity of an ILS localiser display typically compare with that of a VOR display?

• AFull scale is about 2.5° each side, roughly four times as sensitive
• BFull scale is about 10° each side, the same as a VOR
• CFull scale is about 0.7° each side, the same as the glide path
• DFull scale is about 5° each side, twice as sensitive

What is the main operational advantage of area navigation (RNAV) over flying conventional routes between ground beacons?

• AIt removes the legal need to carry fuel reserves when flying direct routes
• BIt allows descent below the minimum sector altitude in IMC on GNSS guidance
• CIt allows any desired flight path within aid or system coverage
• DIt is used only on oceanic and remote routes without ground-based aids

Under the ICAO PBN concept, what does an RNP 1 navigation specification require?

• AWithin 10 NM of track at all times, with no alerting requirement
• BWithin 1 NM for 95% of the time, plus on-board performance alerting
• CAt least one radio altimeter and one GNSS receiver must be fitted
• DA navigation error below 1% of the distance flown, checked on every leg

What is meant by frontogenesis?

• AThe decay and dissipation of an existing front
• BThe movement of a cold front over a warm ocean
• CThe formation or intensification of a front
• DThe clearing of radiation fog after sunrise

In the Northern Hemisphere, which sequence of surface weather typically marks the passage of an active cold front?

• AGradual pressure fall and steady rain, then warm humid air
• BRising temperature and falling pressure after passage, with fog
• CNo wind change, with gradual warming aloft
• DPressure trough, sharp veer in wind, showers or storms, then colder clearer air

What is clear air turbulence (CAT), and where is it most often encountered?

• ACloud-free turbulence at upper levels, near jet streams and wind shear
• BTurbulence inside low-level cumulus cloud on hot summer afternoons over the steppe
• CMechanical turbulence around hangars and buildings near the runway
• DTurbulence that occurs only inside drifting volcanic ash clouds

An aeroplane on final approach flies through a microburst. What sequence of effects should the crew expect?

• AHeadwind and climb first, then downdraft and tailwind with sudden loss of speed and height
• BA steady tailwind throughout the approach, giving a long, fast landing but no height loss
• CA brief updraft only, raising the aircraft slightly with no change in airspeed
• DA gradual loss of airspeed caused by ice accretion, with no other effect

A SIGMET reports SEV ICE (FZRA). What causes this hazard?

• ASupercooled fog droplets freezing at the surface
• BHail thrown out from a thunderstorm anvil
• CFrost forming on parked aircraft overnight
• DRain falling into a sub-zero layer and freezing on impact

What mainly drives the polar-front jet stream that often lies across northern Asia and Mongolia?

• ATidal movement of the Arctic Ocean transmitted upward into the atmosphere
• BChanges in solar magnetic activity heating the upper atmosphere unevenly
• CStrong horizontal temperature contrast between polar and warmer air
• DThe combined wakes of many airliners flying the same busy upper routes

Moist air is forced over a mountain range, producing cloud and rain on the windward side. What conditions are typical on the lee side (the föhn effect)?

• AColder, wetter air with low cloud and drizzle
• BWarmer, drier air with higher cloud bases
• CIdentical conditions to the windward side
• DDense fog caused by rising air

What mainly causes the extreme winter surface cold in Ulaanbaatar, often below −30°C?

• AConstant strong northerly gales bringing fresh polar air into the city all winter
• BPersistent overcast reflecting all incoming sunlight back to space
• CRadiational cooling under clear, calm skies, with cold air pooling in the valley
• DVolcanic ash layers from distant eruptions blocking the winter sun

An aerodrome at 4,300 ft reports −34°C (about ISA −40°C). Using the rule of thumb of 4% of height above the aerodrome for each 10°C below ISA, what is the true height when the altimeter (QNH) shows 2,000 ft above the aerodrome?

• AAbout 1,680 ft
• BAbout 2,000 ft
• CAbout 2,320 ft
• DAbout 1,920 ft

In which season does most of Mongolia's annual precipitation fall, and what form of weather makes it hazardous to light aircraft?

• AWinter, as heavy frontal snowfall
• BSpring, as widespread freezing drizzle
• CAutumn, as persistent stratus and rain
• DSummer, largely as convective showers and thunderstorms

On a clear, calm night in mountainous terrain, what wind typically develops on the slopes and in the valleys?

• AAn anabatic wind blowing up the slopes
• BA strong sea breeze blowing inland
• CA föhn wind from the valley floor
• DA katabatic wind draining cold air down the slopes