MCAA Airline Transport Pilot Licence Theoretical Knowledge Examination (ATPL, Mongolia)

Under CAR 61.253(a), which set of prerequisites applies to an ATPL(A) applicant?

• AAge 18, a current PPL and a Class 2 medical certificate
• BAge 23, a current CPL and a multi-crew cooperation certificate
• CAge 21, a current CPL and a Class 2 medical certificate only
• DAge 21, a current CPL and a current instrument rating

Which flight experience does AC61-7 Appendix I accept for an ATPL(A) under CAR 61.253(a)(4)?

• A1,500 h total, including 500 h multi-pilot and 250 h PIC
• B1,500 h total, including 250 h PIC, 100 h night and 75 h instrument
• C1,000 h total, including 250 h PIC and 50 h instrument
• D1,500 h total, including 500 h PIC and 200 h night

Under AC61-7 Appendix I, how much co-pilot time in an aeroplane required by its flight manual to have a co-pilot may count towards the 1,500-hour ATPL total?

• A50% of the co-pilot time
• B100% of the co-pilot time
• C25% of the co-pilot time
• DNone of the co-pilot time

Under CAR 61.17(d)(2) and AC61-1 Rev 4 §3.4, how long is an ATPL written examination credit valid, and what special rule applies to air law?

• AValid 3 years, the same as a CPL credit, with air law treated like all others
• BValid 5 years, and air law expires 2 years earlier than the other subjects
• CValid 10 years; the air law pass may be no more than 5 years old at application
• DValid indefinitely once the ATPL flight test has been passed within 3 months

A pilot completed their ATPL written credit in 2020; the air law pass dates from 2019. Applying for the ATPL in 2026, what must they do about the written credit?

• ARe-sit all seven subjects, because the whole ATPL credit has now expired
• BPass ATPL air law again; the credit's original expiry date is not extended
• CNothing further, because the written credit remains valid for 10 years
• DPass air law again, which restarts the full 10-year validity of the credit

Under AC61-7 §1.6, when may a current foreign ATPL be accepted in place of the Mongolian ATPL written examinations?

• AFor every subject, if issued by any ICAO State, with no experience requirement
• BNever; every ATPL subject must always be re-sat in Mongolia
• CAll but air law, given 500 h PIC or 1,000 h co-pilot in multi-crew ops since issue
• DOnly for air law, given 1,500 h total time on the foreign licence

Under CAR 61.253(b), in what kind of flight must the ATPL(A) flight test be conducted?

• AA local VFR circuit flight in any single-engine aeroplane of 5,700 kg or less
• BA day VFR navigation flight in any aeroplane, with an instructor as safety pilot
• CAn oral examination and simulator session, with no flight in an aircraft
• DA cross-country IFR flight in a qualifying multi-engine aircraft or approved simulator

Which privilege does CAR 61.255 give an ATPL holder beyond those of a CPL?

• APIC of an aircraft that requires a co-pilot, on air transport operations
• BPIC on air transport without a type rating for the aircraft flown
• CExamining other pilots for licence issue without a separate authorisation
• DCarrying out maintenance and certifying the aircraft's release to service

Under CAR 61.15A, what restriction applies to a 62-year-old ATPL holder on air transport operations?

• AThey may not command a single-pilot air transport aircraft, but may fly multi-pilot
• BThey may not act as any pilot on any air transport operation from age 60 onwards
• CThey may act as PIC on air transport only if a second Class 1 medical is held
• DNo age restriction applies to air transport pilots until they reach age 70

Which aeroplanes are covered by CAR 121 (ИНД-121), large aeroplane commercial operations?

• A10 or more passenger seats, or an MCTOW above 5,700 kg
• BAny multi-engine turbine aeroplane in commercial air transport, whatever its size
• CAn MCTOW above 20,000 kg, whatever the passenger seating or payload
• DMore than 30 passenger seats, or a payload capacity above 3,410 kg

Under CAR 121.75(c), which fuel elements must an AOC holder's usable fuel calculation account for?

• ATrip fuel plus final reserve, with contingency fuel left to the captain
• BTaxi, trip and final reserve only, as alternate fuel is covered by contingency
• CTaxi, trip, contingency, alternate if required, final reserve and any additional
• DFull tanks on every sector, so that no separate fuel calculation is needed

Under CAR 91.403(a), what holding fuel must a turbine-engine aeroplane carry beyond the destination (or alternate, when one is required) on an IFR flight?

• A45 minutes at holding speed, 1,500 ft above the aerodrome
• B30 minutes at holding speed, 1,500 ft above the aerodrome
• C30 minutes at normal cruise speed at the planned cruise level
• D60 minutes at long-range cruise speed at FL100

Under CAR 91.403(b)(4), when must a pilot-in-command declare 'MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL'?

• AWhen any change to the clearance could bring landing fuel below final reserve
• BWhen fuel on board falls below the planned contingency figure at any stage of flight
• CWhen predicted fuel on landing at the nearest suitable aerodrome is below final reserve
• DWhenever an unplanned holding pattern is entered at the destination aerodrome

Ulaanbaatar Control clears a flight to 'flight level 10,100 metres' on an eastbound track. Following AIP Mongolia ENR 1.7, which level should the crew fly?

• AFL331 (33,100 ft), read from the Mongolia RVSM FLAS table
• BFL330, converting metres to feet and rounding down
• CExactly 10,100 m on the avionics' metric readout
• DFL340, the nearest standard ICAO eastbound level

Which freedom of the air allows an airline to carry traffic between two foreign States on a service that starts or ends in its home State?

• AThird freedom
• BFifth freedom
• CFourth freedom
• DSeventh freedom

Under ICAO Annex 6, which minima define a Category II precision approach operation?

• ADH not below 200 ft, and visibility 800 m or RVR 550 m
• BDH below 100 ft or no DH, and RVR below 300 m
• CNo DH and no RVR limitation at all
• DDH below 200 ft but not below 100 ft, and RVR not below 300 m

An aircraft flies a great circle from A (50°N 080°E) to B (50°N 100°E). The initial true track at A is 082.3°. What is the true track on arrival at B?

• A067.0°
• B082.3°
• C102.3°
• D097.6°

Why is grid navigation used on high-latitude and polar routes?

• AGNSS satellites cannot be received above about 65° latitude
• BMeridians converge rapidly and the magnetic compass becomes unreliable
• CPolar routes are open only to military aircraft with grid-coded radios
• DIonospheric activity disables every VHF radio near the poles

Which physical effect do ring laser gyros in an inertial reference system use to measure rotation?

• AThe Sagnac effect
• BThe Coriolis effect
• CThe Doppler effect
• DThe piezoelectric effect

Why are inertial navigation systems Schuler-tuned to a period of about 84 minutes?

• ATo match the orbital period of low-Earth-orbit navigation satellites
• BTo synchronise the IRS with the 28-day AIRAC database cycle
• CSo horizontal errors stay bounded instead of growing without limit
• DTo cancel the dither frequency of the laser gyro assembly

Under the ICAO PBN Manual (Doc 9613), what distinguishes an RNP specification from an RNAV specification?

• ARNAV requires dual FMS, while RNP needs one GPS receiver
• BRNP requires on-board performance monitoring and alerting
• CRNAV is oceanic only, while RNP is used only for approaches
• DRNP allows manual dead reckoning, while RNAV forbids it

What lateral total system error must be achieved for at least 95% of flight time under an RNAV 5 navigation specification?

• A±1 NM
• B±2 NM
• C±5 NM
• D±10 NM

Which PBN specification, with ADS-C and CPDLC, supports 30 NM lateral and longitudinal separation on oceanic and remote routes?

• ARNAV 1
• BRNP APCH
• CRNAV 5
• DRNP 4

What mainly distinguishes an RNP AR approach from a standard RNP approach?

• ATighter RNP values and RF legs, needing specific approval
• BIt needs visual contact with the runway before the initial approach fix
• CIt is meant for single-engine piston aircraft without an autopilot
• DIt has no missed approach segment, so a landing is always made

How many satellites must a GNSS receiver track to provide RAIM fault detection and exclusion (FDE)?

• A6, or 5 with barometric aiding
• B4, or 3 with barometric aiding
• C5, with no alternative
• D8, whatever the aiding

How do satellite-based (SBAS) and ground-based (GBAS) augmentation systems differ?

• ASBAS is used by military aircraft only, while GBAS serves civil helicopters only
• BGBAS broadcasts new satellite orbits, while SBAS replaces the inertial reference system
• CSBAS corrections travel over telephone lines, while GBAS uses laser cross-links
• DSBAS: wide-area corrections via geostationary satellites; GBAS: local VHF corrections

An aircraft departs Chinggis Khaan International Airport (about 106°49'E) at 02:00 UTC. What is the local mean time (LMT) there at departure?

• A02:00
• B08:00
• C09:07
• D10:00

Using the radio-horizon formula (range in NM ≈ 1.23 × √height in ft), what is the approximate maximum reception range of a sea-level VOR for an aircraft at 25,000 ft over flat terrain?

• AAbout 250 NM
• BAbout 195 NM
• CAbout 150 NM
• DAbout 100 NM

When all sensors are available, in what order does a typical airline FMS prefer position-updating sources?

• AIRS alone, then VOR/VOR, then NDB/NDB, then GNSS
• BVOR/DME, then TACAN, then Loran-C, then the magnetic compass
• CGNSS, then DME/DME, then VOR/DME, then IRS alone
• DAir data, then celestial fixes, then DME/DME, then GNSS

Why does ground alignment of an inertial reference system generally take longer at high latitudes?

• AEarth's rotation, used to find true north, has a smaller horizontal component
• BColder air slows the laser gyros, which must warm up before alignment can finish
• CGNSS signals are weaker there, so the IRS must wait longer for a satellite fix
• DThe magnetic compass input the IRS needs for alignment becomes less reliable

In ICAO fuel planning (Annex 6), what is the usual basis for contingency fuel?

• A10% of trip fuel, but never less than 1,000 kg on any sector
• B5% of trip fuel, but not less than 5 minutes' holding at 1,500 ft
• CA fixed 15 minutes of cruise fuel, whatever the trip length
• D2% of maximum take-off mass, added on top of the final reserve

Under ICAO Annex 6, what fuel must a turbine aeroplane carry beyond trip fuel when flying to an isolated aerodrome with no destination alternate?

• ANo extra fuel, provided dual GNSS and both engines are serviceable
• BEnough to fly 500 NM in any direction from the destination at normal cruise speed
• CAn extra 50% of trip fuel, added on top of the normal final reserve
• D2 hours at normal cruise consumption over the destination, final reserve included

Two aerodromes are 1,200 NM apart. TAS is 420 kt with a 60 kt headwind on the way out, which becomes a tailwind on the way back. How far from departure is the critical point (equal time point)?

• A514 NM
• B600 NM
• C750 NM
• D686 NM

An aircraft has 12,000 kg of fuel available for an out-and-return flight (reserves excluded), burning 2,400 kg/h. Groundspeed out is 400 kt and home 480 kt. How far away is the point of safe return?

• A1,000 NM
• B1,091 NM
• C1,200 NM
• D909 NM

What does the cost index (CI) entered in an airline FMS represent?

• AThe ratio of time-related costs to fuel cost
• BThe ratio of seat revenue to landing fees
• CThe share of profit allocated to crew pay
• DThe airframe's depreciation per flight cycle

What speed schedule does the FMS fly when the crew enters a cost index of zero?

• AMaximum operating Mach, to minimise flight time
• BIdle thrust with an automatic glide descent
• CMaximum range cruise, for minimum fuel burn per mile
• DVertical navigation disengaged, reverting to pitch hold

Why do many operators plan to cruise at long range cruise (LRC) rather than at maximum range cruise (MRC) speed?

• ALRC is slower, which protects the engine hot section
• BFor about 1% less range, LRC is several per cent faster
• CLRC and MRC are identical at every weight and altitude
• DLRC gives better range than MRC in strong headwinds only

Why do jet transports make step climbs on long flights?

• ATo stay above the wake turbulence of preceding aircraft
• BTo comply with military rules on 2,000 ft steps
• CBurning fuel reduces weight, so the optimum cruise level rises
• DTo keep the cabin differential pressure at zero

What is the purpose of a redispatch or decision-point procedure on a long-haul flight?

• ATo let the aircraft depart before the full crew complement has reported for duty
• BTo cancel passenger bookings in flight when the price of fuel changes
• CTo bypass ATC clearances in foreign airspace on long oceanic sectors
• DTo carry less contingency fuel by first planning to an intermediate point

What is the maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM)?

• AThe maximum permitted mass before usable fuel is loaded
• BThe empty aircraft with no oil or hydraulic fluid
• CThe maximum mass at which the aircraft may land
• DPassengers and baggage only, excluding cargo

Given MTOM 75,000 kg, MLM 65,000 kg and MZFM 61,000 kg, with trip fuel of 9,000 kg and take-off fuel of 12,500 kg, what is the maximum take-off mass for the flight?

• A73,500 kg
• B74,000 kg
• C75,000 kg
• D72,500 kg

In mass and balance planning, what does 'traffic load' mean?

• AThe total fuel on board at engine start
• BThe dry operating mass plus the flight crew
• CCommunications equipment and antennas fitted
• DPassengers, baggage, cargo and mail carried

The MEL allows dispatch with one thrust reverser inoperative. What is the usual effect on take-off performance from a dry runway?

• ATake-off mass must be cut by at least 15% on any runway
• BV1 must be raised until it equals the rotation speed
• CNo effect, as dry-runway take-off data give no reverse thrust credit
• DThe flight must be cancelled, as reversers are mandatory

Dry operating mass is 42,000 kg, take-off fuel 12,500 kg and trip fuel 9,000 kg. MTOM is 75,000 kg, MLM 65,000 kg and MZFM 61,000 kg. What is the maximum traffic load?

• A20,500 kg
• B19,000 kg
• C19,500 kg
• D21,000 kg

A jet cruises at 450 kt TAS into a 50 kt headwind, burning 2,500 kg/h. What is its specific ground range?

• A180 NM per 1,000 kg
• B140 NM per 1,000 kg
• C160 NM per 1,000 kg
• D200 NM per 1,000 kg

How do the height and temperature of the tropopause typically vary between the equator and the poles?

• AHigher and colder over the equator; lower and warmer over the poles
• BLower and warmer over the equator; higher and colder over the poles
• CUniform everywhere at 11 km and −56.5°C
• DLowest in summer and highest in winter at all latitudes

What minimum core wind speed does the WMO definition of a jet stream specify?

• A30 kt
• B60 kt
• C90 kt
• D120 kt

In the Northern Hemisphere, where is clear air turbulence usually strongest relative to a jet stream core?

• AWell below the core on the warm, equatorward side
• BExactly at the centre of the core
• CAt the surface below the jet entrance
• DOn the cold, poleward side and near the tropopause break