AL Master Barber Exam

When performing a clipper-over-comb taper on the nape, what is the primary purpose of holding the comb at an angle away from the scalp as you move up?

• ATo dry the hair faster
• BTo create a graduated blend from short to longer lengths
• CTo remove split ends
• DTo straighten curly hair permanently

A skin fade (zero fade) blends the hairline into the skin starting at what clipper setting before progressing upward?

• AA #3 guard
• BA #1 guard
• CBald (no guard, lever closed)
• DA #5 guard

Scissor-over-comb is typically preferred over clipper-over-comb when:

• AThe client has very thick hair that needs bulk removed quickly
• BCreating a softer, more textured blend on longer-length tapers
• CCutting completely bald around the ears
• DPerforming a chemical relaxer service

When sculpting a beard line along the cheek, which guideline produces the most flattering result for most face shapes?

• AA straight line from sideburn to corner of the mouth
• BA natural line that follows the client's existing growth pattern, cleaned and softened
• CAn aggressive sharp angle running into the mustache
• DA diagonal line dropping below the jaw

Which cutting elevation produces a heavier, blunt look with no graduation?

• A0 degrees (no elevation)
• B45 degrees
• C90 degrees
• D180 degrees

When taking a vertical parting on the crown and lifting it to 90 degrees, you create:

• AWeight at the perimeter
• BUniform layers throughout that section
• CA solid blunt edge
• DAn undercut

Texturizing shears (notching shears) primarily:

• ARemove the maximum amount of length
• BRemove bulk and add visual texture without changing overall length
• CCut wet hair only
• DSharpen themselves automatically

A 'burst fade' is characterized by:

• AA fade that radiates outward in a semicircle around the ear
• BA straight horizontal fade line across the back
• CA fade only on the front hairline
• DA bald spot on the crown

When detailing the temple area with a trimmer, the barber should always:

• AUse the trimmer with the blade facing the scalp at a 90-degree angle
• BWork from the established line outward into the hair, never inward beyond the line
• CApply heavy downward pressure
• DSkip eye protection for the client

An over-direction technique in cutting is used to:

• ASpeed up drying
• BBuild weight or length toward a specific area
• CSterilize implements
• DTest pH balance

A pompadour requires which structural cutting decision at the front?

• AVery short fringe under 1 inch
• BSufficient length on top (typically 3+ inches) to sweep up and back
• CA blunt one-length cut to the eyebrows
• DHair removed completely from the crown

The 'guideline' in a haircut refers to:

• AThe first section cut, used as the reference length for subsequent sections
• BThe line drawn on the floor
• CThe state's licensing rules
• DA diagram in the manufacturer's manual

When blending a mid-fade, the most common point at which the fade begins is:

• AAt the temple/ear level (mid-head)
• BAbove the parietal ridge near the crown
• CBelow the occipital bone at the nape
• DOnly on the mustache

The 'parietal ridge' is best described as:

• AThe widest area of the head, where the side meets the top
• BThe bone at the base of the skull
• CThe point of the chin
• DThe bridge of the nose

When using thinning shears, you should generally avoid:

• AUsing them on dry hair
• BCutting close to the scalp where the blunt notches will show
• CUsing them on long hair
• DHolding them like a regular shear

A 'crew cut' is traditionally characterized by:

• ALong top, shaved sides
• BShort, flat-topped or rounded crown with tapered sides
• CA single uniform length all over
• DA long ponytail at the nape

When edging a square hairline on a client with a naturally rounded growth pattern, the most professional approach is to:

• AForce the square shape regardless of natural growth
• BDiscuss with the client and respect natural growth limits to avoid an unnatural look
• CRefuse the service
• DCharge double

Flat-tops require frequent maintenance because:

• AThe flat top platform shows the slightest growth and unevenness
• BThe hair color fades quickly
• CFlat-tops require chemical processing every week
• DAlabama law requires biweekly cuts

Sodium hydroxide relaxers function by:

• ABreaking the disulfide bonds in the hair shaft to permanently straighten curl
• BCoating the hair with silicone only
• CAdding melanin to the cortex
• DClosing the cuticle with mild acid

The typical pH range of a sodium hydroxide relaxer is:

• A4.5 to 5.5
• B6.0 to 7.0
• C10.0 to 11.5
• D12.0 to 14.0

A 'no-lye' relaxer most commonly uses:

• ACalcium hydroxide and guanidine carbonate
• BAmmonium thioglycolate
• CHydrogen peroxide only
• DSodium chloride

When relaxing virgin hair, the relaxer should be applied:

• AFrom scalp to ends all at once
• BFirst to the most resistant areas, then mid-shaft, keeping scalp area for last
• COnly to the ends
• DOnly to the scalp

Acid-balanced (thio) permanent waves typically have a pH range of:

• A1.0 to 3.0
• B6.9 to 7.2
• C9.0 to 9.6
• D12.0 to 14.0

Alkaline 'cold wave' perms primarily contain:

• AAmmonium thioglycolate
• BSodium hydroxide
• CHydrogen peroxide only
• DSodium bromate

Oxidation in permanent hair color refers to:

• AAdding oxygen via hydrogen peroxide to develop color and lift natural pigment
• BRemoving oxygen from the hair
• CSoaking hair in water
• DCooling the chemical reaction with ice

A 20-volume developer contains approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide?

• A3%
• B6%
• C9%
• D12%

Which developer volume provides the most lift but also the most damage to the cuticle?

• A10 volume
• B20 volume
• C30 volume
• D40 volume

A predisposition (patch) test for permanent hair color is performed:

• AImmediately before applying color
• B24 to 48 hours before the service to check for allergic reaction
• COnly after the client complains
• DOne week after the service

Semi-permanent hair color differs from permanent color in that semi-permanent:

• AUses no developer and only deposits color on the cuticle and outer cortex
• BRequires 40-volume developer
• CPermanently changes the hair's natural pigment
• DCannot be applied to chemically treated hair

On the level system used in hair color, which level represents the lightest blonde?

• ALevel 1
• BLevel 5
• CLevel 8
• DLevel 10

To neutralize unwanted yellow tones in lightened hair, a barber should select a toner with:

• ARed base
• BViolet base
• CYellow base
• DOrange base

Neutralizer used after a permanent wave service:

• ARebuilds the disulfide bonds and stops the waving action
• BAdds permanent color to the hair
• CRemoves the natural curl
• DStrips conditioner from the hair

A strand test before chemical services determines:

• AThe hair's reaction time, color result, and integrity before full application
• BOnly the cost of the service
• CThe client's age
• DThe barber's licensing status

Porosity of hair primarily affects:

• AHow quickly hair absorbs chemicals and moisture
• BThe client's natural hair color
• COnly the hair's growth rate
• DWhether the hair can be cut

Performing a chemical relaxer service over recently colored, broken hair would most likely result in:

• AImproved hair shine
• BSevere damage, breakage, or chemical burn
• CStronger curl pattern
• DFaster hair growth

Before any chemical service, the barber must:

• AConduct a thorough scalp and hair analysis and discuss results with the client
• BSkip the consultation to save time
• CApply the chemical immediately
• DHave the client sign a blank waiver only

Texturizers are best described as:

• AA mild relaxer designed to loosen — not straighten — curl pattern
• BA type of permanent color
• CA waxing service
• DAn infection control product

The angle at which a straight razor should be held against the skin during a shave is typically:

• A0 degrees (flat on the skin)
• BApproximately 30 degrees
• C90 degrees (perpendicular)
• D180 degrees

The standard 14 shaving areas of the face are completed in a specific order to:

• AMaintain the lather's heat and softening effect, minimize razor passes, and keep the work…
• BSave the barber walking time
• CMatch the client's preferred song
• DAvoid AL Board fines

When applying a hot towel before a shave, the towel temperature should be:

• ACold to the touch
• BWarm enough to soften the beard but tested on the inside of the barber's wrist first to a…
• CAs hot as possible, even if it burns
• DFrozen

Shaving 'with the grain' means:

• ARazor moves in the same direction the hair grows
• BRazor moves opposite to the hair growth direction
• CRazor moves sideways across the hair
• DNo razor is used

An astringent applied at the end of a shave is intended to:

• AConstrict pores, cool the skin, and disinfect minor nicks
• BPermanently remove all facial hair
• CAdd hair color to the beard
• DReplace the need for a wash

Pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) is most commonly caused by:

• AShaved hairs curling back and re-entering the skin, especially with close ATG shaves on c…
• BAllergies to lather
• CDrinking cold water
• DCutting hair too long

The proper way to dispose of a used disposable straight-razor blade is to:

• AThrow it in the regular trash can
• BPlace it in a labeled, puncture-resistant sharps container
• CHand it back to the client
• DReuse it for the next client

A 'change blade' straight razor differs from a traditional 'set blade' razor in that the change blade razor:

• AUses replaceable disposable blades instead of one permanently set blade requiring stroppi…
• BCannot be used in a barbershop
• CIs always made of bone
• DDoubles as a comb

If a barber accidentally nicks a client during a shave and draws blood, the appropriate response is to:

• AContinue shaving normally
• BApply universal precautions: stop, glove up, treat the wound, and follow blood-spill clea…
• CIgnore it and finish the service
• DApply the same razor to another client