Free Practice Questions for CRN

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Key Facts: CRN Exam

150

Multiple-Choice Questions

RNCB

73%

Approx. Passing Score

Scaled 95 / 150

3 hours

Exam Duration

RNCB

2,000 hrs

Required Practice

Radiology nursing in 3 yrs

$325

ARIN Member Fee

RNCB

4 years

Certification Validity

RNCB

The CRN (Certified Radiology Nurse) exam from RNCB has 150 multiple-choice questions and a 3-hour time limit. You need a scaled score of 95 — about 73% of questions correct. Eligibility requires an active RN license, 2,000 practice hours in radiology nursing within the past 3 years, and 30 contact hours of CE (15 specific to radiology nursing). The credential is ABSNC-accredited and delivered via PSI testing centers. ARIN members pay $325; non-members pay $425.

Sample CRN Practice Questions

Try these sample questions to review concepts for the CRN exam. Each question includes a detailed explanation. Start the interactive quiz above for the full 122+ question experience with AI tutoring.

1Before an iodinated contrast CT, the radiology nurse should screen the patient for which condition that most increases the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?

A.Well-controlled hypertension

B.Pre-existing chronic kidney disease (eGFR < 30)

C.Allergic rhinitis

D.Chronic stable asthma without recent exacerbation

Explanation: An eGFR below 30 mL/min/1.73m^2 marks high risk for contrast-induced acute kidney injury. ACR Manual on Contrast Media recommends weighing benefit/risk and considering hydration or alternative imaging at this threshold.

2A patient scheduled for a gadolinium-enhanced MRI has an eGFR of 25 mL/min/1.73m^2. The most appropriate nursing action is to:

A.Proceed with a Group I (high-risk) gadolinium agent

B.Notify the radiologist to discuss using a Group II macrocyclic agent or alternative imaging

C.Premedicate with corticosteroids and proceed

D.Cancel the study without discussion

Explanation: ACR groups gadolinium agents by NSF risk. With eGFR < 30, Group I agents are contraindicated; the radiologist may select a Group II macrocyclic agent (lower NSF risk) or recommend alternative imaging. The nurse advocates and communicates rather than acting unilaterally.

3Which prior reaction history mandates the strongest premedication consideration before iodinated contrast administration?

A.Mild urticaria 2 days after contrast

B.Diaphoresis during a prior CT without rash or wheeze

C.Prior moderate bronchospasm requiring treatment after iodinated contrast

D.Nausea immediately after a prior CT

Explanation: Prior moderate or severe contrast reactions (bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, hypotension) are the strongest indication for corticosteroid + antihistamine premedication or alternative imaging per ACR.

4During the pre-procedure assessment for an MRI, which implanted device most clearly contraindicates the scan unless verified MR-conditional?

A.A titanium total hip arthroplasty placed 5 years ago

B.An older non-MR-conditional cardiac pacemaker

C.A modern dental amalgam filling

D.A surgical staple line from 2 years ago

Explanation: Non-MR-conditional pacemakers can malfunction or be reprogrammed by the magnetic field. Verification of MR-conditional labeling, model, and lead status is required, often coordinated with electrophysiology and a written MR-conditional protocol.

5When obtaining baseline vital signs prior to moderate sedation, the nurse should also document:

A.Only blood pressure

B.Mallampati airway score and ASA physical status classification

C.Only temperature

D.Only pain score

Explanation: A pre-sedation assessment includes airway evaluation (Mallampati), ASA physical status (I-IV/E), NPO status, allergies, and a baseline set of vitals. This drives appropriateness of moderate sedation versus anesthesia consult.

6ASA-PS classification III describes a patient who:

A.Is healthy with no systemic disease

B.Has mild systemic disease (e.g., well-controlled HTN)

C.Has severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating

D.Has a constant threat to life from systemic disease

Explanation: ASA III is severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating (e.g., poorly controlled HTN, COPD on home O2). ASA III/IV patients often warrant anesthesia consultation rather than RN-administered moderate sedation.

7A Mallampati Class IV airway implies that on examination:

A.Soft palate, fauces, uvula, and pillars are visible

B.Soft palate, fauces, and uvula are visible

C.Only the soft palate and base of uvula are visible

D.Only the hard palate is visible

Explanation: Mallampati IV shows only the hard palate, predicting a difficult airway. Higher classes correlate with harder direct laryngoscopy and stricter sedation precautions.

8Standard adult NPO guidance prior to moderate sedation per ASA practice guidelines is:

A.NPO 1 hour for clear liquids

B.NPO 2 hours for clear liquids and 6 hours for a light meal

C.NPO 12 hours for everything

D.No NPO requirement for moderate sedation

Explanation: ASA fasting guidelines recommend at least 2 hours for clear liquids and 6 hours for a light meal/non-human milk before sedation/anesthesia, to reduce aspiration risk.

9Which renal function indicator is the preferred screening parameter before contrast for adults?

A.Serum creatinine alone

B.BUN

C.eGFR

D.Specific gravity

Explanation: ACR recommends eGFR (calculated from serum creatinine) for risk-stratifying contrast use because it accounts for age, sex, and body factors better than creatinine alone.

10A patient is taking metformin and is scheduled for IV iodinated contrast with an eGFR of 35 mL/min/1.73m^2. The most appropriate guidance is to:

A.Continue metformin without change

B.Hold metformin at the time of contrast and recheck renal function before resuming

C.Stop metformin permanently

D.Substitute glipizide for metformin

Explanation: ACR Manual on Contrast Media (2025) states metformin need not be stopped before or after intravenous iodinated contrast when eGFR is >=30 mL/min/1.73m^2 and there is no acute kidney injury. Hold metformin only when eGFR <30 or AKI is present, then reassess renal function before restarting.

About the CRN Exam

Specialty certification for registered nurses in radiology and imaging practice. Validates expertise in radiation safety, contrast media, sedation, and procedural nursing. ABSNC-accredited and recognized across diagnostic, interventional, and imaging settings.

Exam sponsor: RNCB (Radiologic Nursing Certification Board). The requirements and fees below concern the certification or admission exam, separate from our free practice resources.

Questions

150 questions

Time Limit

3 hours

Passing Score

Scaled 95 (~73% correct)

Exam / Certification Fees

$325 ARIN member / $425 non-member

Exam sponsor website

Reported exam pass rate: Not published. RNCB does not publicly disclose CRN pass rates Exam sponsor website

Fees, eligibility, and exam policies can change. Confirm them with the exam sponsor before applying or paying.

Official sources

Our practice resources: topics covered

We aim to reflect publicly available exam outlines and topic information in our study resources. Coverage, format, and difficulty may differ from the actual exam, and we cannot guarantee that every detail is accurate or current. Confirm exam requirements, fees, and policies with the official exam sponsor.

25%

Assess Patient and Plan Care

History, physical assessment, lab/imaging review, allergy and contrast risk screening, individualized care planning

25%

Administer, Monitor, Evaluate Therapeutic Interventions

Contrast media administration, moderate sedation, pharmacology, vascular access, post-procedure monitoring

25%

Provide Safe Environment / Manage Emergency Situations

ALARA radiation safety, MRI safety zones, contrast reactions, anaphylaxis, extravasation, code response

17%

Teach Patient and Family / Provide Supportive Environment

Procedure education, informed consent support, discharge teaching, anxiety reduction, cultural competence

QA/CQI and Professional Practice

Quality improvement, ARIN/ANA standards, scope of practice, ethics, evidence-based practice

Preparing for the CRN Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Scaled 95 (~73% correct)
Exam length: 150 questions
Time limit: 3 hours
Exam / certification fees: $325 ARIN member / $425 non-member Official sources

Using Our Practice Resources

Work through all 122 available questions
Review every answer and explanation
Track weak areas and revisit them
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

CRN: Suggested Study Strategy

1Master contrast media — iodinated reaction grading, gadolinium NSF risk, premedication protocols, and extravasation management

2Memorize the four MRI safety zones (I-IV) and what is permitted in each — high-yield exam content

3Drill moderate sedation pharmacology — midazolam, fentanyl, reversal with flumazenil and naloxone, capnography monitoring

4Use the ARIN Core Curriculum for Radiologic & Imaging Nursing as your primary reference

5Complete at least 500 practice questions and target 80%+ scores before scheduling at PSI

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the CRN exam pass rate?

The Radiologic Nursing Certification Board (RNCB) does not publicly publish CRN pass rates. To pass, candidates need a scaled score of 95, which corresponds to answering approximately 73% of the 150 multiple-choice questions correctly. Practicing 500+ questions across all five domains is the most reliable way to prepare.

How can I pass the CRN exam on my first try?

To pass the CRN on your first attempt: 1) Spend 60-100 hours studying across 8-12 weeks. 2) Distribute time by domain weight — 25% each on assessment, interventions, and safety. 3) Master contrast reactions, ALARA, and MRI Zone safety. 4) Drill 500+ practice questions and aim for 80%+ before scheduling. 5) Use our AI tutor for weak areas.

How hard is the CRN exam?

The CRN is moderately difficult — it is a specialty-level exam that assumes an experienced radiology nurse with 2,000+ hours of practice. The hardest sections are contrast media management, moderate sedation pharmacology, and emergency response (combined ~50% of the exam). With targeted practice and 60-100 hours of study, most experienced radiology nurses pass.

How many questions are on the CRN exam?

The CRN exam contains 150 multiple-choice questions delivered in a single session at a PSI testing center. You have 3 hours (180 minutes) to complete the exam. Questions are drawn from a blueprint validated by the 2016 RNCB role delineation study, weighted across five domains.

How long should I study for the CRN exam?

Plan for 60-100 hours of study spread over 8-12 weeks. Use the ARIN Core Curriculum for Radiologic & Imaging Nursing as your primary text. Study 1-2 hours per weekday plus longer weekend blocks. Don't schedule the exam until you are consistently scoring 80%+ on full-length practice tests.

What are the CRN exam eligibility requirements?

Candidates must hold an active, unrestricted RN license; have practiced as a licensed RN for at least 2,000 hours in radiology nursing within the past 3 years; and have completed 30 contact hours of continuing education within the 24 months before the exam, with at least 15 hours specific to radiology nursing care.

How much does the CRN exam cost?

ARIN members pay $325 total ($25 application fee plus $300 exam fee). Non-members pay $425 ($25 application plus $400 exam). Re-examination after a failed attempt is $180. Many radiology departments reimburse the cost. The credential is valid for four years and requires recertification by exam or by 60 contact hours of CE.