100+ Free QEP Practice Questions

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Question 1

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Which of the following is a potential health effect of exposure to nitrogen oxides?

Aggravated respiratory diseases

All of the above

Increased susceptibility to respiratory infections

Airway inflammation

to track

Sample QEP Practice Questions

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1A facility's air permit requires quarterly monitoring of opacity from a smokestack. The environmental manager observes that on cloudy days, the steam plume is much more visible than on clear days, making it difficult to assess compliance. Which phenomenon is primarily responsible for this observation?

A.Rayleigh scattering

B.Mie scattering

C.Tyndall effect

D.Refraction

Explanation: Mie scattering is responsible for the white, gray, or black appearance of smoke and steam plumes. It occurs when the particle size is similar to the wavelength of light. On cloudy days, the increased ambient light is scattered more effectively by the water droplets in the steam plume, making it appear more opaque. Rayleigh scattering applies to particles much smaller than the wavelength of light and is responsible for the blue color of the sky. The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by particles in a colloid, and refraction is the bending of light as it passes through different mediums.

2An environmental site assessment is being conducted at a former industrial property. A soil sample is taken from a depth of 5 meters and analyzed for contaminants. The results show high levels of benzene, a volatile organic compound (VOC). If the contamination source is at the surface, which transport mechanism is most likely responsible for the presence of benzene at this depth?

A.Advection

B.Diffusion

C.Dispersion

D.Sorption

Explanation: Advection is the transport of a substance by the bulk movement of a fluid. In this case, rainwater infiltrating the soil and moving downward would carry the dissolved benzene with it. Diffusion is the movement of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Dispersion is the spreading of a substance as it moves with the fluid, caused by variations in velocity. Sorption is the attachment of a substance to soil particles, which would tend to retard its movement.

3A wastewater treatment plant is experiencing a sudden increase in the concentration of ammonia in its effluent. The plant uses an activated sludge process for biological nutrient removal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the high ammonia levels?

A.A decrease in the hydraulic retention time (HRT)

B.An increase in the mean cell residence time (MCRT)

C.A sudden decrease in the influent BOD

D.A drop in the dissolved oxygen (DO) concentration in the aeration basin

Explanation: Nitrification, the process of converting ammonia to nitrate, is carried out by nitrifying bacteria in the activated sludge. This process is aerobic and requires a sufficient amount of dissolved oxygen. A drop in the DO concentration would inhibit the activity of these bacteria, leading to a decrease in nitrification and an increase in the effluent ammonia concentration. A decrease in HRT could also cause this, but a drop in DO is a more direct cause. An increase in MCRT would tend to improve nitrification. A decrease in influent BOD would likely improve nitrification by reducing the oxygen demand from heterotrophic bacteria.

4A manufacturing facility generates a waste stream containing a listed hazardous waste. The facility manager decides to mix this hazardous waste with a large volume of non-hazardous solid waste in order to render the mixture non-hazardous. Which environmental regulation is this facility most likely violating?

A.The Clean Air Act

B.The Clean Water Act

C.The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)

D.The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)

Explanation: The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) prohibits the dilution of a listed hazardous waste as a substitute for adequate treatment. This is known as the 'dilution is not the solution' principle. The mixture of a listed hazardous waste with a non-hazardous waste is still considered a hazardous waste, regardless of the concentration of the hazardous constituent in the final mixture. The other acts are not the primary regulations governing hazardous waste management.

5An environmental manager is developing an Environmental Management System (EMS) for a company based on the ISO 14001 standard. Which of the following is a key component of the 'Planning' phase of the ISO 14001 cycle?

A.Conducting management reviews

B.Identifying environmental aspects and impacts

C.Establishing an internal audit program

D.Implementing corrective and preventive actions

Explanation: The ISO 14001 standard is based on the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle. The 'Planning' phase involves identifying the environmental aspects of the organization's activities, products, and services, and determining their significant environmental impacts. This information is then used to establish environmental objectives and targets. The other options are part of the 'Check' (management reviews, internal audit) and 'Act' (corrective and preventive actions) phases of the cycle.

6A QEP is hired by a company to provide expert testimony in a legal case involving a chemical spill. The QEP's initial analysis of the data suggests that the company is at fault. The company's legal counsel asks the QEP to modify the report to be more favorable to the company's case. According to the BGC Code of Ethics, what is the most appropriate course of action for the QEP?

A.Refuse to modify the report and withdraw from the case

B.Modify the report as requested, but include a disclaimer

C.Modify the report, but only to the extent that it is still technically defensible

D.Report the lawyer's request to the presiding judge

Explanation: The BGC Code of Ethics requires QEPs to be objective and truthful in their professional reports, statements, and testimony. Modifying a report to be more favorable to a client, when it is not supported by the data, is a violation of this code. The most appropriate course of action is to refuse to modify the report and, if necessary, withdraw from the case to avoid being associated with a misleading report. The other options are not consistent with the ethical obligations of a QEP.

7A risk assessment is being performed for a contaminated site. The assessment team is evaluating the potential for a chemical to cause cancer in humans. Which of the following is the most appropriate measure of the chemical's carcinogenic potency?

A.The reference dose (RfD)

B.The cancer slope factor (CSF)

C.The no-observed-adverse-effect level (NOAEL)

D.The lowest-observed-adverse-effect level (LOAEL)

Explanation: The cancer slope factor (CSF) is a measure of the carcinogenic potency of a chemical. It represents the upper-bound estimate of the probability of an individual developing cancer per unit of lifetime daily intake of the chemical. The reference dose (RfD) is a measure of the non-carcinogenic toxicity of a chemical. The NOAEL and LOAEL are used in the derivation of the RfD.

8An environmental professional is reviewing a report on the effectiveness of a new air pollution control device. The report claims that the device has a removal efficiency of 99.9%. Which of the following is the most important piece of information to verify this claim?

A.The cost of the device

B.The size of the device

C.The inlet and outlet concentration data

D.The manufacturer's warranty

Explanation: The removal efficiency of a pollution control device is calculated as the difference between the inlet and outlet concentrations, divided by the inlet concentration, expressed as a percentage. To verify the claim of 99.9% removal efficiency, the environmental professional would need to see the data on the concentration of the pollutant at the inlet and outlet of the device. The other options are not directly relevant to the device's performance.

9A new industrial facility is being proposed near a pristine natural area. The project is expected to have significant environmental impacts. Which of the following is the most comprehensive tool for evaluating the potential environmental and social impacts of the project and identifying mitigation measures?

A.A life cycle assessment (LCA)

B.An environmental impact assessment (EIA)

C.A risk assessment (RA)

D.A cost-benefit analysis (CBA)

Explanation: An environmental impact assessment (EIA) is a systematic process for identifying, predicting, evaluating, and mitigating the potential environmental and social impacts of a proposed project. It is a comprehensive tool that considers a wide range of factors, including air and water quality, biodiversity, noise, and cultural heritage. A life cycle assessment (LCA) is a tool for evaluating the environmental impacts of a product or service throughout its entire life cycle. A risk assessment (RA) is a tool for evaluating the potential for adverse health or environmental effects from exposure to a particular substance or activity. A cost-benefit analysis (CBA) is a tool for comparing the costs and benefits of a project.

10An environmental manager is responsible for ensuring that a company complies with all applicable environmental regulations. The company has operations in multiple states. What is the first step the manager should take to ensure compliance?

A.Hire a consultant to conduct a compliance audit

B.Develop a list of all applicable federal, state, and local environmental regulations

C.Implement an environmental management system (EMS)

D.Train all employees on the company's environmental policies

Explanation: The first step in ensuring compliance is to identify all of the applicable regulations. This includes federal, state, and local regulations, as well as any permit conditions. Once the applicable regulations have been identified, the manager can then take steps to ensure that the company is in compliance with them. This may include conducting a compliance audit, implementing an EMS, and training employees.

About the QEP Exam

The Qualified Environmental Professional (QEP) is a senior-level credential for environmental professionals demonstrating broad expertise across air, water, waste, environmental science, management, and policy. The QEP exam (125 questions: 100 scored + 25 pilot) is administered by the Board for Global EHS Credentialing (BGC) at Pearson VUE testing centers. Originally administered by IPEP, the credential transitioned to BGC after IPEP dissolved in 2017.

Questions

125 scored questions

Time Limit

4 hours

Passing Score

Scaled score (modified Angoff; ~70% of scored items)

Exam Fee

$270 per part (GES + QEP); $160 application fee (Board for Global EHS Credentialing (BGC, formerly IPEP))

QEP Exam Content Outline

20%

Air Quality

Air pollutants, dispersion modeling, control technologies, monitoring, and Clean Air Act fundamentals.

20%

Water Quality

Surface and groundwater systems, treatment processes, NPDES, drinking water standards, and stormwater.

20%

Waste Management

Solid waste, hazardous waste (RCRA), CERCLA/Superfund, remediation technologies, and waste minimization.

20%

Environmental Science and Health

Ecology, toxicology, risk assessment, sampling and analysis, and environmental impact assessment.

20%

Management and Policy

Environmental management systems (ISO 14001), regulatory frameworks, sustainability, and ethics.

How to Pass the QEP Exam

What You Need to Know

Passing score: Scaled score (modified Angoff; ~70% of scored items)
Exam length: 125 questions
Time limit: 4 hours
Exam fee: $270 per part (GES + QEP); $160 application fee

Keys to Passing

Complete 500+ practice questions
Score 80%+ consistently before scheduling
Focus on highest-weighted sections
Use our AI tutor for tough concepts

Frequently Asked Questions

What is the QEP exam?

The Qualified Environmental Professional (QEP) is a senior-level certification for environmental professionals with broad expertise across air, water, waste, environmental science, and management/policy. It is administered by the Board for Global EHS Credentialing (BGC), the same body that administers the CIH.

How many questions are on the QEP exam?

The QEP exam contains 125 multiple-choice questions: 100 scored and 25 unscored pilot items. Candidates have 4 hours to complete the exam. Most candidates also need to pass the General Environmental Science (GES) exam unless they hold the EPI designation.

How much does the QEP cost?

Each exam (QEP and GES) costs $270, plus a $160 non-refundable application fee. Candidates without the EPI designation typically pay around $700 total. Annual maintenance fees apply once certified.

What is the passing score for the QEP?

BGC uses a scaled passing score determined by a modified Angoff process, which generally corresponds to about 70% of scored items correct. Candidates receive pass/fail results without numeric scores.

What are the eligibility requirements for the QEP?

Candidates need a bachelor's degree in environmental science, engineering, or a related field, plus 8 years of professional environmental experience (reduced to 5-6 years with a master's or doctoral degree). Candidates also submit references and detailed work history for review.