GRE Exam Flashcards

Q: How many questions are on the current GRE General Test?

The current GRE (launched September 22, 2023) has 54 scored questions plus 1 essay: 27 Verbal Reasoning questions split into two sections (12 and 15 questions) and 27 Quantitative Reasoning questions split into two sections (12 and 15 questions). The single Analytical Writing task, 'Analyze an Issue,' is graded separately and is not counted among the 54 scored questions.

Q: Is the GRE pass or fail?

No. The GRE has no passing score. Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning are each reported on a 130-170 scale, and Analytical Writing is reported on a 0-6 scale in half-point increments. Each graduate program sets its own competitive score expectations, so 'passing' is entirely program-dependent.

Q: How does GRE section-level adaptive scoring work?

The GRE adapts by section, not by question. Your performance on the first Verbal section determines whether your second Verbal section is easier or harder, and the same applies separately to Quantitative Reasoning. Scoring accounts for the difficulty of the questions you actually received, so there is no advantage to deliberately answering early questions incorrectly.

Q: How soon can I retake the GRE, and how many times per year?

ETS requires a minimum 21-day wait between GRE General Test administrations, and this wait applies uniformly no matter how many times you have tested before. You may take the GRE at most 5 times within any rolling 12-month period. Scores remain valid for 5 years, and ETS's ScoreSelect feature lets you choose which test date's scores to send to programs.

Q: What happened to the GRE Analyze an Argument essay?

The 'Analyze an Argument' task and the unscored research section were both eliminated when ETS shortened the test on September 22, 2023. The current Analytical Writing section consists solely of one 'Analyze an Issue' task, in which you develop and defend your own position on a general-interest issue in 30 minutes.

Q: What GRE score is competitive for graduate programs?

A Verbal Reasoning score of 160+ and a Quantitative Reasoning score of 165+ are generally competitive for top-20 programs, though STEM programs typically weight Quantitative more heavily while humanities and law programs weight Verbal and Analytical Writing more heavily. The 75th percentile is roughly 158 Verbal and 167 Quantitative, and Quantitative percentiles have been declining over time as more quantitatively strong applicants take the test.

Question 1

A GRE Text Completion item gives you one blank in a sentence with five answer choices. What is the single biggest mistake to avoid before looking at the choices?

Accepted Answer

Peeking at the answer choices before predicting your own word. Cover the choices, read the full sentence for its logic (contrast, cause-effect, definition), predict a word or phrase that fits, then match your prediction to the closest choice.

Question 2

A Text Completion item has three blanks. You are confident about blanks 1 and 3 but unsure about blank 2. Should you still submit an answer for all three?

Accepted Answer

Yes, but know the stakes: GRE Text Completion gives no partial credit. Every blank in the item must be filled correctly for the item to count as correct, so treat blank 2 with the same predict-first approach even under uncertainty.

Question 3

In a Text Completion sentence, the word 'however' appears right before the blank. What does that signal about the missing word's relationship to the rest of the sentence?

Accepted Answer

A contrast or reversal. Words like 'however,' 'but,' 'although,' and 'despite' flip the direction of meaning, so the blank should contrast with (not restate) the idea that came before it.

Question 4

Why do experienced GRE test-takers treat each blank in a multi-blank Text Completion item as its own mini-question?

Accepted Answer

Because the blanks are often logically dependent in one direction only: solving an easier blank can supply the context needed to solve a harder one, but each blank still needs its own textual justification rather than a guess based on the answer choices' wording.

Question 5

You've predicted 'reluctant' for a Text Completion blank, but no answer choice says 'reluctant.' What should you do?

Accepted Answer

Look for the closest synonym in meaning and degree, not an exact match. GRE answer choices rarely restate your prediction verbatim; the correct choice captures the same sense (e.g., 'hesitant' or 'unwilling') that fits the sentence's logic.

Question 6

A Sentence Equivalence item gives one blank and six answer choices, and asks you to select exactly two. What must those two choices have in common?

Accepted Answer

They must each complete the sentence with essentially the same overall meaning. It is not enough for two words to be synonyms in general usage; plugged into the sentence, both must produce logically equivalent sentences.

Question 7

In Sentence Equivalence, four of the six choices are plausible-sounding words, but only two form a matching pair. What is this design meant to test?

Accepted Answer

Whether you can spot the true synonym pair versus 'trap' words that fit the sentence's tone individually but have no partner producing an equivalent sentence. An unmatched word, however well it fits alone, cannot be part of the correct answer.

Question 8

You select only one correct answer choice on a Sentence Equivalence item and leave the second blank choice empty. Do you get partial credit?

Accepted Answer

No. Like Text Completion, Sentence Equivalence is all-or-nothing: you must select both correct choices to earn credit for the item, with no credit for selecting just one.

Question 9

What is the fastest way to narrow six Sentence Equivalence choices down to the likely pair before checking meaning carefully?

Accepted Answer

Predict a word for the blank first, then scan the six choices for the two words closest to your prediction. Group any choices that are synonyms of each other; a word with no synonym partner among the six is unlikely to be correct.

Question 10

How does Sentence Equivalence differ structurally from Text Completion with one blank?

Accepted Answer

Text Completion with one blank has five choices and one correct answer; Sentence Equivalence has six choices and requires selecting exactly two that create equivalent sentences. Both give zero partial credit, but Sentence Equivalence specifically tests recognition of synonym pairs.

Question 11

A GRE Reading Comprehension question asks 'According to the passage, ...'. What kind of answer is required?

Accepted Answer

A directly stated fact from the passage, not an inference. 'According to the passage' questions test whether you can locate explicit text support; the correct answer should be nearly restatable by pointing to a specific sentence.

Question 12

A Reading Comprehension question asks what the passage 'suggests' or 'implies.' How does this differ from an 'according to the passage' question?

Accepted Answer

'Suggests' or 'implies' asks for an unstated logical conclusion the author wants you to draw. Unlike directly-stated questions, the correct answer will not appear verbatim in the text but must still be strongly supported by it, not merely plausible.

Question 13

Before answering detail questions on a GRE Reading Comprehension passage, what should you identify first?

Accepted Answer

The passage's main idea or primary purpose. Establishing the author's central thesis and tone before diving into detail questions helps you evaluate answer choices against the passage's overall point rather than an isolated sentence.

Question 14

A Reading Comprehension question is a 'Select-in-Passage' type. How do you answer it, and what's different about scoring it?

Accepted Answer

You click on the specific sentence within the passage that best answers the question, rather than choosing from separate answer choices. There is no multiple-choice list for this question type; the sentence itself is your selected answer.

Question 15

A Reading Comprehension question says 'select all answer choices that apply' with three options. How many can be correct, and is there partial credit?

Accepted Answer

Any number of the three choices from zero to three could be correct, and you must select every correct one and no incorrect ones. There is no partial credit for selecting only some of the correct choices.

Question 16

What does the GRE vocabulary root 'bene-' or 'bon-' mean, and what does its opposite root mean?

Accepted Answer

'Bene-'/'bon-' means good (as in benevolent, bona fide). Its opposite, 'mal-,' means bad (as in malevolent, malign) -- recognizing paired opposite roots helps you narrow Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence choices quickly.

Question 17

Define 'abstruse' and 'perspicacious' as they commonly appear on the GRE.

Accepted Answer

'Abstruse' means hard to understand or obscure. 'Perspicacious' means having keen insight or shrewd judgment -- the two are near-opposites in the sense of clarity of understanding, a common contrast pattern in GRE Text Completion.

Question 18

What does 'laconic' mean, and what is its near-opposite?

Accepted Answer

'Laconic' means using very few words; terse and concise. Its near-opposite is 'loquacious' or 'garrulous,' meaning excessively talkative -- the 'loqu-'/'dic-' root family relates to speaking (loquacious, diction, interlocutor).

Question 19

What do 'ephemeral' and 'capricious' mean, and what's the key difference between them?

Accepted Answer

'Ephemeral' describes something short-lived or quickly fading (referring to duration). 'Capricious' describes impulsive, unpredictable change in behavior or mood (referring to inconsistency), not necessarily duration -- don't conflate 'temporary' with 'fickle.'

Question 20

What do the roots 'omni-'/'pan-' and 'mono-'/'uni-' mean, and give one example word for each.

Accepted Answer

'Omni-'/'pan-' means all, as in omniscient (all-knowing) or panacea (cure-all). 'Mono-'/'uni-' means one, as in monotonous (one unvarying tone) or unilateral (one-sided) -- quantity-related roots frequently appear in GRE vocabulary questions.

Question 21

GRE Quantitative Comparison Quantity A is x^2 and Quantity B is x, with no restriction on x. Why can't you conclude Quantity A is always greater?

Accepted Answer

Because the relationship depends on the value of x: if x = 2, A > B, but if x = 0.5, A < B, and if x = 1, A = B. Since different valid values of x produce different comparisons, the answer is 'the relationship cannot be determined' -- always test fractions and values near 0 or 1, not just whole numbers.

Question 22

On a Quantitative Comparison problem with variables, which test values should you try first to check whether the answer might be 'cannot be determined'?

Accepted Answer

Try 0, 1, -1, a fraction between 0 and 1, and a large number. These special values expose sign flips, fraction behavior, and scale effects that a single 'normal' number would hide, quickly revealing whether the comparison is consistent or variable.

Question 23

What are the four possible answer choices in a standard GRE Quantitative Comparison question?

Accepted Answer

(A) Quantity A is greater, (B) Quantity B is greater, (C) the two quantities are equal, or (D) the relationship cannot be determined from the given information. Choice (D) is only correct when different valid inputs produce genuinely different outcomes.

Question 24

If a Quantitative Comparison problem gives specific numerical quantities with no variables (e.g., Quantity A: 3/7, Quantity B: 0.43), can the answer be 'cannot be determined'?

Accepted Answer

No. When both quantities are fixed numbers with no variables or unknowns, the relationship between them is fixed, so the answer must be (A), (B), or (C) -- (D) 'cannot be determined' is reserved for cases involving variables or unspecified conditions.

Question 25

What is the correct order of operations for evaluating 6 + 2 x (5 - 3)^2 on the GRE?

Accepted Answer

Parentheses first (5-3=2), then exponents (2^2=4), then multiplication (2x4=8), then addition (6+8=14). PEMDAS/order of operations errors are a common source of avoidable GRE arithmetic mistakes.

Question 26

A price rises from $80 to $100. What is the percent change, and why is the original value the denominator?

Accepted Answer

The percent change is (100-80)/80 x 100 = 25%. The original ('old') value is always the denominator because percent change measures the increase relative to the starting point, not the ending point -- using the wrong base is a frequent GRE trap.

Question 27

What GRE exponent rule applies when multiplying two powers with the same base, such as x^3 times x^5?

Accepted Answer

Add the exponents when the base is the same: x^3 * x^5 = x^(3+5) = x^8. This rule only applies when the bases match; different bases cannot be combined this way.

Question 28

How do you compute the average (arithmetic mean) of a list of numbers, and how does one large outlier affect it?

Accepted Answer

Average equals the sum of all values divided by the count of values. A single large outlier pulls the average toward it more than it would affect the median, since every value contributes to the sum -- watch for GRE problems designed around this sensitivity.

Question 29

What is the GRE quadratic formula, and when do you need it instead of factoring?

Accepted Answer

x = (-b +/- sqrt(b^2 - 4ac)) / 2a, used for ax^2 + bx + c = 0. Use it when the quadratic does not factor cleanly with integers; if it does factor easily, factoring is faster than the formula.

Question 30

What happens to an inequality's direction when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number?

Accepted Answer

The inequality sign flips. For example, if -2x < 6, dividing both sides by -2 gives x > -3, not x < -3 -- forgetting this flip is one of the most common GRE algebra errors.

Question 31

How do you find the slope of a line through two points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2)?

Accepted Answer

Slope = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1), the change in y divided by the change in x ('rise over run'). Keep the order of subtraction consistent between numerator and denominator or the sign will be wrong.

Question 32

What does |x - 5| = 3 mean geometrically, and what are its two solutions?

Accepted Answer

Absolute value measures distance from zero (or, here, distance of x from 5), so |x-5|=3 means x is exactly 3 units from 5 in either direction: x = 8 or x = 2. Always solve absolute value equations by considering both the positive and negative case.

Question 33

What is the area formula for a circle versus its circumference formula, and how do you avoid mixing them up?

Accepted Answer

Area = pi*r^2 (squares the radius, gives a two-dimensional measure); circumference = 2*pi*r (linear, gives a one-dimensional measure). A quick check: area answers should carry squared units, circumference answers should not.

Question 34

State the Pythagorean theorem and identify which side it solves for.

Accepted Answer

a^2 + b^2 = c^2, where a and b are the two legs of a right triangle and c is the hypotenuse (the side opposite the right angle, always the longest side). It only applies to right triangles.

Question 35

In a 30-60-90 right triangle, what is the ratio of the three side lengths?

Accepted Answer

The sides are in the ratio x : x*sqrt(3) : 2x, where x is opposite the 30-degree angle, x*sqrt(3) is opposite the 60-degree angle, and 2x (the hypotenuse) is opposite the 90-degree angle. Memorizing this ratio avoids re-deriving it with the Pythagorean theorem each time.

Question 36

How do you find the area of a triangle given its base and height?

Accepted Answer

Area = 1/2 x base x height, where the height must be measured perpendicular to the chosen base -- not along a slanted side. Using a non-perpendicular side as the 'height' is a common GRE geometry mistake.

Question 37

A GRE Data Analysis question presents a bar graph with an unfamiliar unit label on the y-axis. What should you check before doing any calculation?

Accepted Answer

Read the axis labels, units, and legend carefully first. GRE graphs sometimes use thousands, percentages, or indexed values instead of raw counts, and misreading the units leads to answers that are off by orders of magnitude even when the arithmetic is correct.

Question 38

What does a data set's standard deviation tell you that the mean does not?

Accepted Answer

Standard deviation measures how spread out the values are around the mean, while the mean only tells you the central value. Two data sets can share the same mean but have very different standard deviations if one is tightly clustered and the other widely dispersed.

Question 39

How do you compute a weighted average when groups of different sizes each have their own average?

Accepted Answer

Multiply each group's average by its own size (weight), sum those products, then divide by the total combined size -- you cannot simply average the group averages together unless the groups are equal in size.

Question 40

A data problem asks for the median instead of the mean of an ordered list. Why might the GRE prefer testing median in a data set with outliers?

Accepted Answer

Median is the middle value when data is ordered, and it is resistant to outliers, unlike the mean, which outliers can pull sharply in one direction. Problems with skewed data commonly hinge on recognizing this median-versus-mean distinction.

Question 41

What is the single writing task on the current GRE Analytical Writing section, and how long do you have?

Accepted Answer

One 'Analyze an Issue' task, in which you develop and support your own position on a complex, general-interest issue in 30 minutes. The previously required 'Analyze an Argument' task, along with the unscored research section, was eliminated when ETS shortened the GRE on September 22, 2023.

Question 42

What is the required structure of a strong GRE 'Analyze an Issue' essay, and roughly how should the 30 minutes be split?

Accepted Answer

State a clear thesis position in the introduction, develop two or more specific supporting examples in body paragraphs, briefly acknowledge and rebut a counterargument, and restate a nuanced position in the conclusion. Budget roughly 5 minutes to outline, about 20 minutes to write, and the last 5 minutes to proofread.

Question 43

What distinguishes an Analytical Writing essay that scores a 6 from one that scores a 3, according to the ETS scoring rubric?

Accepted Answer

A 6 is insightful, compellingly argued, and well-organized with clearly developed examples, while a 3 is limited and underdeveloped, with weak or unclear support for its position. Essays are scored 0-6 in half-point increments by trained human raters plus an automated scoring engine.

Question 44

What earns an Analytical Writing essay a score of 0, and how is that different from a genuinely weak essay?

Accepted Answer

A 0 is reserved for essays that are blank, written in a foreign language, merely copy the prompt, are entirely off-topic, or are illegible -- not simply for a weak-but-genuine attempt, which instead falls somewhere in the 1-3 range for being underdeveloped or seriously flawed.

Question 45

Who or what actually scores your GRE Analytical Writing essay?

Accepted Answer

Each essay is scored by at least one trained human rater and is also processed by ETS's automated e-rater scoring engine; if the human and automated scores disagree significantly, a second human rater adjudicates. Your final score is never from the automated system alone.

Question 46

Why doesn't the 'Analyze an Issue' task require you to argue only one absolute side of the topic?

Accepted Answer

ETS scores you on the quality of your reasoning and support, not on which side you pick. A nuanced position that qualifies when and why a claim holds (or doesn't) often demonstrates more sophisticated analysis than a rigid, one-sided stance.

Question 47

How much space should a counterargument get in your Issue essay, and what should it accomplish?

Accepted Answer

Briefly acknowledge the strongest opposing view in a short paragraph, then explain concisely why your position still holds. It should support your thesis, not become the centerpiece of the essay or crowd out your own examples.

Question 48

Why do GRE raters penalize essays that rely only on vague, general claims instead of concrete examples?

Accepted Answer

The rubric explicitly rewards essays that develop a position with specific, well-chosen supporting examples and clear reasoning. Vague assertions without concrete development read as underdeveloped analysis even when the underlying thesis is reasonable.

Question 49

You're 20 minutes into the 'Analyze an Issue' task and can't think of a strong supporting example. What is the safest fallback strategy?

Accepted Answer

Draw from a familiar, defensible domain such as history, science, current events, or personal experience -- the specific topic of your example matters far less than clearly explaining how it supports your stated thesis. A generic but well-connected example scores better than no example at all.

Question 50

You have a clear thesis and one strong, fully developed example, but you're unsure whether to squeeze in a third body paragraph before time runs out. What should guide that decision?

Accepted Answer

Favor depth over breadth: one or two well-developed, specific examples with clear reasoning typically outscore three underdeveloped ones. Only add a third example if there is enough time to fully connect it to your thesis, not just list it.

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